Other questions have addressed this verse but I am particularly interested in the hermeneutics involved in arriving at a translation of it, rather than Hebrew grammar, etc. Translations are all over the map on this. I do not want to rule out grammatical issues in the Hebrew or Greek versions since there is apparently a good deal of ambiguity, but I am also hoping to understand what leads translators to their various understandings. Examples:
KJ21 "I charge you, O ye daughters of Jerusalem, by the roes and by the hinds of the field, that ye stir not up nor awake my love till he please."
AMP "That you do not rouse nor awaken my love Until she pleases."
CEB "Don’t rouse, don’t arouse love until it desires."
GNV "that ye stir not up, nor waken my love, until she please."
GNT "that you will not interrupt our love."
NABRE "Do not awaken, or stir up love until it is ready."
TLB "that you do not awaken my lover. Let him sleep!”
YLT "Stir not up nor wake the love till she please!"
I cannot think of another biblical verse in recent memory that has so many different interpretations. Please shed light on this if you can.