In a previously answered question (How to understand Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13) explaining the correlation between Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13, the top-rated answer from Bruce James explains that

In the Torah -- the Five Books of Moses (Genesis through Deuteronomy) negative commandments (i.e. anything that says, "thou shalt not...") are brought out in two separate verses -- one that discusses the crime or sin, and a second that explains the punishment or consequence of doing the sin."

and that

"The rabbis presumed that there would always be pairs of verses linking a crime to its punishment, and they used this presumption to explain difficulties in translation, especially where a word seems to be misplaced in context with surrounding verses."

My question: is there a specific term for pairs of verses linking a crime to its punishment, if so what is it?

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    – agarza
    Aug 14, 2023 at 16:39
  • 1
    There is so much of Leviticus that is NOT in this format, I do not really understand the basis for the question.
    – Dottard
    Aug 14, 2023 at 21:34
  • My question was regarding the entire Torah and not just the book of Leviticus. The question I cited above and again here <hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/13172/…> is from Leviticus and has much more context for my question. I am trying to determine what term if any Orthodox Jewish Rabbis have for pairs of verses linking a crime to its punishment? My thoughts were that the Orthodox Jewish Community might be the most qualified to answer questions about what these verses meant at the time they were written.
    – Ben Quist
    Aug 17, 2023 at 14:14


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