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What is meant by tongues of angels? I believe I know the answer just want to know what your research came up with.

  • I wish that English Bible translators would use "languages" instead of "tongues" as "tongues" is not standard English. – Ruminator May 23 '18 at 21:23
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1 Corinthians 13:1 Tongues of men or angels meaning?

Eloquence was something greatly admired in the first century and the people of Corinth were no exception. Paul did not offer eloquence in his oratory and writings (cf. 1 Corinthians 2:1, 4; 2 Corinthians 10:10). This may possibly explain the Corinthians' fascination with tongues.

Paul’s application of this, and the following conditional clauses (1 Corinthians 13:2–3) to himself, was powerful because he could claim exceptional experiences, particularly in regard to the languages of men (1 Corinthians 14:18) and of angels (cf. 2 Corinthians 12:4).

But the statement is probably best understood to include every imaginable mode of speech. It was a statement of hyperbole concerning exalted eloquence, which if void of love might be momentarily electrifying like a clash of gong or cymbal but then vanished just as quickly. Love on the other hand produces eternal effects (cf. v. 13).

All Scripture references are to the AV.

  • Thanks for the few illustrations. It was helpful though it could be of great help if you explained into deeper meaning since am finding it a problem to many of our churches... – samuel May 23 '18 at 7:09
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The Greek word, here, is "γλώσσαις," which is, indeed, plural ("unto~tongues" #1100, N-DPF), and Paul does, indeed, use it in regards to both that of "messengers" and humanity. But then, perhaps it's only our assumption that these particular "messengers" are "angels?"

But if we can factually confirm this, then the answer would be ..."Yes" ...angels speak in more than one language.

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