What did Paul mean by "Arsenokoitēs"? Was he condemning homosexual activity as we know it today?

Question

The below two paragraphs often pop up when one discusses/debates about Biblical stance towards homosexuality.

“Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals, nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers, will inherit the kingdom of God” (1 Corinthians 6:9–10).

“But we know that the Law is good, if one uses it lawfully, realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers and immoral men and homosexuals and kidnappers and liars and perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound teaching, according to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, with which I have been entrusted” (1 Timothy 1:8–11).

The NASB uses 'homosexuals' for Paul's word "Arsenokoitēs", which, according to gay-friendly websites, is not referring to homosexual as we know it today, because there already was a word "androkoitēs" to describe the real homosexual activity.

So, what did Paul have in mind, when he wrote about and condemned "Arsenokoitēs"? Did he condemn the kind of sexual activity associated with male prostitutes back in the days of the Romans or gay love as we know it today?

Answer 1

The term Paul used that is translated 'homosexual(s)' came directly from the two Greek words in the Greek translation of the Levitical passage (i.e. the Septuagint, which Paul quoted regularly) condemning homosexuality. Paul "coined" the compound word, but it did not come from a vacuum. The Septuagint's translation of the Levitical passage says, in effect, "Don't 'bed' [koite] a 'man' [arseno] like you would a woman." Hence, arsenokoites.

Neither did Paul contextualize the act confining it to prostitution or child abuse or pagan idolatry. If he did, and if the author of Leviticus did as well, then a consistent hermeneutic requires that the neighboring sins these texts condemn would only be prohibited in the same context, but would be acceptable otherwise. So incest, murder of a child, adultery, and bestiality are permissible as long as they are practiced outside of the context of prostitution or pagan idolatry. This is obviously an untenable position.

See Romans 1:26-27 where the condemnation of homosexuality does not depend on the translation of a word coined by Paul in his other writings. In the Romans passage, Paul lists men and women abandoning the natural sexual act (heterosexuality) for what is unnatural (homosexuality) as an example of man's abominations resulting from abandoning the truth of God in exchange for a lie, as Paul describes it.

Some have suggested over the years that Paul was referring in Romans to people abandoning their sexual orientation, and that the word "natural" refers to what is natural for those individuals and not natural in the context of the created order. But this notion is defective, since the plain structure of the Greek words Paul chose forces the translation of "the" natural function rather than "their" natural function. In other words, there is no possessive usage (i.e. "ho autos physikos") which would translate "their natural..." but instead a direct non-possessive syntax ("ho physikos") is used.

Furthermore, the idea that in the Romans passage Paul was describing "sexual orientation" and therefore what is natural to the individual as opposed to the created order, is defeated by the claim coming from the same sources that sexual orientation as we "know" it today is a concept Paul was unfamiliar with.

Paul clearly condemned homosexual practice singularly regardless of the context in which it may be practiced. Paul may not have been aware of the concept of loving committed same-sex relationships, but that is only relevant if you reject the claim that he was writing God's Word under God's wisdom, inspiration, and guidance. If the Christian claim that Paul was writing what God intended is true, we must consider whether God in his omniscience was aware of the modern concept we are discussing. If one regards the Biblical text as the eternal Word of God as most Christians do, it is reasonable to give credence to the idea that the text would address future possibilities and clear up what would certainly be a potent question for our day.

If the reader is not a Christian, it would be inappropriate to expect credence to the idea of Biblical inspiration. However the question above is "was Paul condemning homosexuality as we know it today?" so the idea of Biblical inspiration given to Paul based on the timeless wisdom of God is a relevant consideration. If it's not, then whether Paul condemns homosexuality or not is of no consequence beyond purely academic or historical interest.

Answer 2

It seems that many people want to quote the lexicon and be on their way, however in this case the lexicon does not tell the whole story.

While the lexicon clearly indicates that the word Arsenokoites came to mean sodomy, it is not at all clear that this is how Paul meant it to be understood. Unfortunately, this word has no established context prior to Paul's use of the word and it appears for the first time in the texts in 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 and 1 Timothy 1:8-11 and is a dis legomenon therefore making it significantly more difficult to translate with certainty. As such, we do not know if this word was co-opted or corrupted from its intended original meaning.

In fact, what is surprising is what we do not find in the text. Were Paul to use one of the many existing terms to describe homosexual activity, we would expect to see the use of arrenomanes; dihetaristriai; eromenos, erastes or paiderasste; or lakkoproktoi.

Instead, Paul chooses to coin a new word. There are (presumably) three reasons for choosing to coin a new word. Either:

• The word is either a slang term that was en vogue and had not yet been recorded in academic texts (which is not unexpected - you wouldn't turn in an English paper which uses "legit", "jelly", "selfie", or "adorbs" for example)
• There was no existing vocabulary to properly capture Paul's intent (or perhaps both of the above.)
• This is a reflection of the fact that Greek was a second language for Paul (he would have spoken Aramaic) and reflects his discomfort and unfamiliarity with the language. Perhaps he simply was not fluent enough with the language to know the greek terms for pimps (πορνοβοσκός) and prostitutes (ἑταῖροι, a term never used in scripture or πόρνοι; though the latter seems unlikely - similar conjugations and grammatical genders of πόρνοι are used by Paul, albeit in later dated epistles) It is not uncommon for non-native speakers to make up words (especially compound words) particularly when their available vocabulary lacks a desired gloss (for example, if the existing terms did not adequately capture a perceived victimhood and predatory nature that might be perceived), just as non-native English speakers often struggle with pronouns. Perhaps a lack of fluency is the reason that Paul chose to use a scribe in writing some epistles.

Due to the fact that αρσενοκοίτης (Arsenokoites) is a dis legomenon, many have attempted to deconstruct αρσενοκοίτης (Arsenokoites) (a compound word) and define it's parts and then act as if this implicitly and obviously has a prima facie meaning. While the word does break down into parts with aseno- (αρσενο-) meaning "men" and -koites (-κοίτης) being the root of the English word coitus which implies (in both Greek and English) that a bed was shared in a sexual manner, the idea that this instantly reveals αρσενοκοίτης (Arsenokoites) to convey a meaning of only sodomy does not stand up to scrutiny.

Take for example the English word "understand". This word does not mean to stand under something.

What may help to elucidate the meaning of αρσενοκοίτης (Arsenokoites) is the use of μαλακός (Malakos) shortly before the condemnation of αρσενοκοίτης (Arsenokoites) in the sin list in 1 Corinthians 6:9-11. This word technically means "effeminate" and older translations will use this word. In contrast, more modern translations will translate μαλακός as "Male Prostitutes" despite ἑταῖροι being the correct and more common term for male prostitutes and μαλακός has a sense of the victim being younger, weaker, and/or dominated in the relationship.

If this is an accurate rendering of Malakos and assuming that Arsenokoites and Malakos are related, then it may be that Arsenokoites refers to the aggressor in the Arsenokoites/Malakos relationship. In other words, this would render the reading of 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 closer to:

Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor gigolos, nor pimps, nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers, will inherit the kingdom of God. Such were some of you; but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.

This would be consistent with the practice of pederasty in Paul's time which is not to be confused with pedophilia. In Pederasty, while there was an age difference between the partners, it was not culturally significant and it was always with a boy who was regarded as a consenting adult. The difference is that by modern standards, the age of consent is much higher. While the relationship might be lecherous, it is not pedophilia according to Roman thought and practice.

Furthermore pederasty was often interrelated with the apprenticeship system in Rome. During the time of Paul, this had devolved into full blown prostitution in many instances. It may be that Arsenokoites/Malakos relationship founded on money was in contrast to the erastes\eromenos relationship founded on love and a pure intent.

I have also toyed with the idea that this would also be somewhat consistent with the tone of the sin list Paul gives in which we move from more moral sins, to more economic sins. This makes Arsenokoites the center-point for both being immoral and causing economic injustices. The only contraindicators here are that we have covetous, drunkards, and revilers between thieves and swindlers, though perhaps these have more economic implications in the original Greek. If any readers have more information on this or arguments as to why these class of people would represent economic sins, I would welcome comments or edits along these lines.

This is also consistent with 1 Timothy 1:8-11 in which the Arsenokoite appears next to kidnappers. It is not as if Pimps and prostitution do not have a long history of sex trafficking.

As such, there are some very strong indicators that this text deals not with homosexuality, but instead male prostitution and the pederasty system. Many will say that tradition and the Weslyan Quadrilateral (ie, the wisdom of historical scholarship) dictate that we regard this to mean homosexuality, but the exegetes who came before us did not have the benefit of the vast information and search-ability internet and it is not as if the church does not have a history of discrimination. Furthermore John Boswell makes a pretty strong case that the church (and historical religious academia) did not, in fact, condemn homosexuality.

What is clear is that if the texts of Corinthians and 1 Timothy are your sole basis for condemnation of homosexuality, you stand on a weak foundation, are forgetting the temperance, curtailment and context that Paul provided immediately after the text 1 Corinthians 6:11:

Such were some of you; but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.

Because Paul is saying here and elsewhere in the texts that whomever his readers are, there is forgiveness from condemnation and the reader's sin through Jesus.

Answer 3

The classical Greek word ἀρρενοκοίτης (or ἀρσενοκοίτης in Koine Greek) means "sodomy" according to its usage in antiquity (please click here, and note its use and translation in paragraph 686, line 5, where the direct reference are to those Arabs who lie with other men for sexual intercourse). So there is no ambiguity of the use of this word in 1 Cor 6:9-10 and 1 Tim 1:8-11, which refer to "sodomy" (sexual contact between men).

Answer 4

Do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! Fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, male prostitutes, sodomites

1 Corinthians 6:9 (NRSV)

fornicators, sodomites, slave traders, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to the sound teaching

1 Timothy 1:10 (NRSV)

A common assumption by scholars is that malakos and arsenokoites referred to partners in a pederastic context, the malakos as passive and the arsenokoites as the active partner.

The following English Bible translations reflects this meaning of malakos:

“Passive homosexual partners” (NETBible)

“Catamites” (NKJV)

Male prostitution is another probable meaning of the Greek word malakos in 1 Corinthians 6:9.This meaning is seen in NRSV,NIV, WEB and ISV.

Another probable meaning of the Greek word arsenokites is “sodomites” in the sense of “rape” (coercion not with consent).

“sodomites” (NRSV,YLT)

NOTE

Evangelical Christian (TULIP & 5 Solae believers) site says:

There is no overt mention of anal sex in the Bible. In the account of Sodom and Gomorrah in Genesis 19, a large group of men sought to gang rape two angels who had taken the form of men. The reasonable presumption is that the men of Sodom wanted to have forcible anal sex with the angels. The men’s homosexual lust is obvious, but again, anal sex is not mentioned in the passage. The words sodomy and sodomize come from this biblical account. Sodomy is, literally, “the sin of Sodom.”

In modern language, the term sodomy has acquired a broader definition than what is biblically warranted. Today, “sodomy” often refers to any form of non-penile/vaginal sexual act, which includes anal sex and oral sex. If the biblical text is used as the basis for the definition, though, “sodomy” cannot include oral sex or, technically, even anal sex. The strict understanding of sodomy, based solely on the events of Genesis 19, would have to be “forcible anal sex, with one male homosexually raping another male anally.” (source).

Answer 5

Homosexuality is an invention of the 19th century. Before then, people had words for specific sexual acts (sodomy etc.), but they did not have the concept of any inherent or acquired “sexual orientation”. This concept originated in modern psycho-pathology. To translate ἀρσενοκοίτης as “homosexual”, as some modern Bible translations do, is an anachronism, if not a deception.

The literature on this is enormous. For a start you could read Foucault, Histoire de la sexualité. Then, for the meaning of ἀρσενοκοίτης, from any Greek dictionary, for example: Greek Word Study Tool.

Answer 6

Understanding "Arsenokoitēs" in 1 Corinthians 6:9 and 1 Timothy 1:10

The term "arsenokoitēs", used by Paul in 1 Corinthians 6:9 and 1 Timothy 1:10, is a unique word in the New Testament. It does not appear in any Greek text predating the New Testament, suggesting that Paul coined it. The word combines "arsenos" (ἄρσενος, "man") and "koitē" (κοίτη, "bed" or "sexual intercourse"), terms that appear in the Septuagint (LXX), the Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures. These occurrences, particularly in Leviticus and other passages, provide essential context for interpreting what Paul meant.

Key Texts from the Septuagint

Leviticus 18:22 (LXX):

"καὶ μετὰ ἄρσενος οὐ κοιμηθήσῃ κοίτην γυναικός· βδέλυγμα γάρ ἐστιν"
("You shall not lie with a man as with a woman; it is an abomination.")

Leviticus 20:13 (LXX):

"καὶ ὃς ἂν κοιμηθῇ μετὰ ἄρσενος κοίτην γυναικός, βδέλυγμα ἐποίησαν ἀμφότεροι·"
("If a man lies with another man as with a woman, they have both committed an abomination.")

These passages provide the linguistic and thematic foundation for Paul's word "arsenokoitēs", which clearly reflects these prohibitions against male-male sexual relations.

Números 31:17 and Judges 21:11 (LXX)

Two additional passages in the Septuagint use the terms "arsenos" and "koitē", reinforcing the connection between Paul's term and earlier Scriptural contexts:

Numbers 31:17 (LXX):

"καὶ νῦν ἀποκτείνατε πᾶν ἀρσενικὸν ἐν πάσῃ τῇ ἀπαρτίᾳ καὶ πᾶσαν γυναῖκα ἥτις ἔγνωκεν κοίτην ἄρσενος ἀποκτείνατε"
("Now kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman who has known a man by lying with him.")

Judges 21:11 (LXX):

"καὶ οὗτος ὁ λόγος ὃν ποιήσετε πᾶν ἀρσενικὸν καὶ πᾶσαν γυναῖκα γινώσκουσαν κοίτην ἄρσενος ἀναθεματιεῖτε"
("And this is the thing you shall do: you shall utterly destroy every male and every woman who has known a man by lying with him.")

In both cases, the phrases "koitēn arsenos" (lying with a man) are used explicitly to describe sexual activity.

Paul’s Innovation

Paul's use of "arsenokoitēs" is a linguistic innovation, drawing directly from these scriptural contexts. While Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 condemn same-sex relations between men, Numbers 31:17 and Judges 21:11 provide additional precedent for the construction of the term. Thus, "arsenokoitēs" most likely refers to male-male sexual relations in a general sense, grounded in the moral framework of the Mosaic Law.

Was Paul Condemning Modern Homosexuality?

To address whether Paul was condemning homosexuality as understood today, it is essential to consider:

1. Linguistic Context: The term "arsenokoitēs" explicitly derives from biblical texts condemning male-male sexual acts. Paul, a Pharisee educated in Jewish law, likely intended to address acts forbidden in the Torah, rather than modern concepts of sexual orientation or consensual same-sex relationships.

2. Cultural Context: In the Greco-Roman world, same-sex practices often involved exploitation (e.g., pederasty or abuse of slaves). These practices differed significantly from modern consensual relationships, which were not culturally recognized in Paul's time.

3. Paul’s Intent: Paul lists "arsenokoitai" among behaviors he deems incompatible with the kingdom of God, such as idolatry, theft, and greed (1 Corinthians 6:9-10). His focus is moral, rooted in the ethics of the Torah.

Conclusion

Paul's use of "arsenokoitēs" reflects a condemnation of same-sex acts as described in the Septuagint, particularly in Leviticus 18:22, Leviticus 20:13, Numbers 31:17, and Judges 21:11. However, his understanding of such acts is deeply tied to the cultural, religious, and social context of his time. While the term explicitly condemns male-male sexual acts, its application to modern understandings of homosexuality requires careful hermeneutical consideration, as the biblical framework does not account for contemporary views on sexual orientation or consensual, loving relationships.

Answer 7

First let us look at what is commonly held as the closest translation to the word 'Arsenokoitēs'. St. John The Faster is one of the most modern usages of the word, in which he used to refer to anal sex between both women and men. It was not an exclusively homosexual act. http://www.holytrinitymission.org/books/english/canons_fathers_rudder.htm#_Toc78634065

In Greek the word very seldom appears. The exact spelling actually only occurs in the Bible. Similar words appear in texts that revolve around economical exploitation. This site "http://www.clgs.org/arsenokoit%C3%A9s-and-malakos-meanings-and-consequences" better explains it, but this term could really have alluded to prostitution, rape, or sodomy. A commonly held view is it referred to the common practice at the time of having paid sex with young, feminine looking boys.

Of course, Leviticus does explain that homosexuality is a sin along with masturbation, anal or oral sex with a woman, bestiality, certain foods, and many other taboos that are a sin. Most Christians would assume homosexuality, along with most these sins, can be forgiven by Christ albeit we must account for all sins in the end. (Reference: Read all of Leviticus; last part, John 3:16.)

I could go more into the aspect of homosexuality, but I believe that is all that matters.