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In some translations, the second half of the verse is placed outside the quotation mark, while in other translations it is included inside the quotation mark.

For example:

English Standard Version

it was granted her to clothe herself with fine linen, bright and pure”— for the fine linen is the righteous deeds of the saints.

Berean Standard Bible

She was given clothing of fine linen, bright and pure.” For the fine linen she wears is the righteous acts of the saints.

Berean Literal Bible

And it was given to her that she should be clothed in bright, pure, fine linen." For the fine linen is the righteous acts of the saints.

Comparing to:

King James Bible

And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.

New King James Version

And to her it was granted to be arrayed in fine linen, clean and bright, for the fine linen is the righteous acts of the saints.

New American Standard Bible

It was given to her to clothe herself in fine linen, bright and clean; for the fine linen is the righteous acts of the saints.**

My question is: if this half-verse is to be accounted outside the quotation mark, whose voice (or view) could this second half-verse belong to? The angel's? Or John's? As is common in Revelation, there are many different voices appearing on stage; is studying the voices significant in understanding this book?

Meanwhile, could the following verses (Revelation 19:9, 10) be understood as a gentle correction from the angel to John, if verse 8b was indeed John's voice?

And what does the original Greek version say?

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  • There are at least 4 variations: YLT has all of verse 8 in the quotation — NKJV ends quotation after verse 7, so none of verse 8 is in the quotation — NIV quotes the first half and put the second half within parentheses — NLT quotes the first half, but not the second. ¶ To me it makes most sense to end the quotation in the middle of verse 8, as the second half sounds like John explaining the symbolism of the linen. But that's only my uneducated opinion, so this is a comment, not an answer.
    – Ray Butterworth
    May 5 at 3:12
  • The "correction" in v10 doesn't apply to v8, but to the act at the beginning of the same verse.
    – Stephen Disraeli
    May 5 at 5:21

1 Answer 1

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The facts recorded in the book of revelation consist entirely of:

  • what John saw happening
  • what John heard or was told by someone
  • what John himself felt (his emotions) or said (eg, to his accompanying angel)

He never makes a judgement nor adds commentary. Thus, the book of Revelation consists entirely of John's experiences.

Note the consistent pattern in Rev 19 (this is typical of the rest of the book)

  • V1 - a great multitude in heaven, crying out [contents of V1a, 2]
  • V3 - Once more they cried out [[V3b]
  • V4 - the twenty-four elders and the four living creatures ... said "Hallelujah"
  • V5 - from the throne came a voice saying [V5b]
  • V6 - the voice of a great multitude [V6b, 7, 8]
  • V9 - the angel said ...
  • V10 - he [the angel] said to me ...
  • V11 - then I saw ...
  • V17 - Then I saw ... angel with a loud voice
  • V19 - then I saw ...

Thus, John never makes explanatory statements, he simply records what he hears and sees, nothing more. Further, every time somebody says something, John tells us who is speaking.

Therefore, based on this consistent pattern throughout Revelation, one must conclude that what John recorded in V8 was spoken by the last person(s) he records as speaking, viz, "the voice of a great multitude" (V6). The same would be true of V10b - the angel said it.

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  • Just to mention that it appears that John did add his own points at the very end of the Revelation. "Amen! Yes, be coming, Lord Jesus! The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ [is] with you all." 22:20b - 23. YLT. Not that that detracts in the slightest from your good points!
    – Anne
    May 7 at 13:27

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