In the imperfect indicative in Hebrew is usually translated as future tense in English, but in Exodus 3:14 it is not translated "I will be what I will be" but "I am that I am." Why is that misleading term found in certain translations? So teachers say Jesus claimed to be I AM in John 8:58. But he didn't. Jesus answered the Pharisees honestly-He lived before Abraham, that's all. But they use that mistranslated OT statement to mislead-WHY?
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Could you please add a link to the citation source of your premise "In the Hebrew written OT that statement translates-I will be what I will be"– grammaplowMar 3 at 10:11
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Does this answer your question? hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/71516/…– Perry WebbMar 3 at 10:35
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An example of "I am what I am" in Greek can be found in [1Cor 15:10]. Ex 3:14 in Greek LXX is "I am what is being" (or has happened). biblehub.com/interlinear/apostolic/exodus/3.htm– grammaplowMar 3 at 10:36
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Also does this answer your question? judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/84269/…– Perry WebbMar 3 at 10:50
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Also related questions are here. hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/13459/… and hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/60119/… and hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/60103/…– Perry WebbMar 3 at 11:05
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