In the imperfect indicative in Hebrew is usually translated as future tense in English, but in Exodus 3:14 it is not translated "I will be what I will be" but "I am that I am." Why is that misleading term found in certain translations? So teachers say Jesus claimed to be I AM in John 8:58. But he didn't. Jesus answered the Pharisees honestly-He lived before Abraham, that's all. But they use that mistranslated OT statement to mislead-WHY?



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