While reading 1 Corinthians 11:26 I've noticed that almost all commentaries say that after Christ's Parousia we will no longer partake of Lord's Supper. But it seems a little bit contradictory with Matthew 26:29, which assumes that after the beginning of Father's Kingdom Christ would take the wine again.

For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink the cup, ye proclaim the Lord’s death till he come.

But I say unto you, I shall not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.

If we consider total preterism this becomes more strange because we could say that the Supper has its end in the first century, and Christ 'is drinking spiritual wine'. What do you think?

Thank you for your answer.

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    Welcome to BHSX. Thanks for your question. Please remember to take the site tour (link below left) to better understand how this site works. If you want the opinion of preterists, then that can only be sought on Christianity SX. Here we ask about the meaning of the Bible text as it exists.
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    Feb 28, 2023 at 20:28
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    Good question indeed. So good that I won't attempt an answer! But I found this article instructive. Mar 3, 2023 at 1:18

4 Answers 4


This is an astute question. Without question the use of the word 'until' expresses duration or length up onto a specified point in space or time: until or as far as. So it is clear in 1 Cor. 11:26 that, when he comes, something ceases:

For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

There are two clear options in the verse for what might cease; 1) eating of the bread and drinking of the cup or 2) showing the Lord's death. OP has rightly noticed that Jesus has promised to partake of the cup once again with us in the Kingdom:

But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom. - Matthew 26:29

It is clearly the repurposed Passover cup that is in view contextually so it cannot be that we will cease to partake of the element of wine (at least) once Jesus returns and ushers in the everlasting Kingdom since He has said that that is when He will drink it with us once again.

The only remaining thing that could cease with the words 'until He comes again' is the 'showing forth' or proclamation of His death. This makes sense since the proclamation of Jesus' death is the proclamation of sin, righteousness, and judgement given for the benefit of the unredeemed, none of whom will have opportunity to repent once everything is consummated.

In the Kingdom we will drink of the fruit of the vine, the cup of the New Testament, but there will no longer be a need to show forth or proclaim the death of Christ.


I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world. (Jn. 6:51 KJV)

In this verse the words "bread" and "meat" have the same meaning.

Jesus saith unto them, My meat is to do the will of him that sent me, and to finish his work. (Jn. 4:34 KJV)

Jesus' food is twofold:

  1. Do the will of the Father

  2. Finish his work

As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me. (Jn. 6:57 KJV)

That this type of food is the same used in the diet of those who have Eternal Life

For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world. (Jn. 6:33 KJV)

And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst. (Jn. 6:35 KJV)

For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed. (Jn. 6:55 KJV)

  1. Going to Jesus means eating his flesh, it has the same meaning as being fed on the bread that came down from heaven;

  2. Exercising the verb faith in Jesus (it is not believing with doubts), means drinking his blood, drinking living water and never being thirsty again.

So eating the bread of Jesus, his flesh, is doing his will and drinking the living water, the blood, is finishing the work he started, which is not the sacrifice consummated on the cross, however, this is remembered every time we participate in the Holy Supper.

So the Kingdom of the Father quoted in Matthew 26:29 is explained by 1 Corinthians 15:24

Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. (1 Cor. 15:24 KJV)

I am not an academic and a specialist in the methodology of Christian and apocalyptic dogmas. The term preterism in the enunciation of the question causes me great difficulty, I tried to do my best.


Do we still participate in the ritual of the Lord's supper after our resurrection?

I don't think so, 1 Cor 11:

25In the same way also he took the cup, after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood. Do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of me.”

After our resurrection, we can see God face to face (1 Corinthians 13:12).

26For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes.

The goal seems to be until he comes.

27Whoever, therefore, eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty concerning the body and blood of the Lord.

After our resurrection, we will not have a guilty conscience.

28Let a person examine himself, then, and so eat of the bread and drink of the cup. 29For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment on himself.

Paul wrote this passage assuming that the ritual took place before Jesus' second coming.

Now, earlier in the actual Last Supper, Mat 26:

27 [Jesus] took a cup, and when he had given thanks he gave it to them, saying, “Drink of it, all of you, 28for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. 29I tell you I will not drink again of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.”

Was Jesus talking about the Lord's supper after his second coming?

Jesus spoke of drinking the fruit of the vine and not necessarily the cup of the Lord's supper after his second coming. I think Jesus alluded to the marriage supper of the Lamb (Revelation 19:7).


If you want the views of strict preterists, then this question might be better on Christianity SX.

As far as the Bible text is concerned, the simple answer to the OP's question is "yes" - various things are only needed until Jesus returns, such as:

  • spiritual gifts will only be required until Jesus brings "perfection", 1 Cor 13:10
  • communion will only be required until Jesus returns, 1 Cor 11:26
  • all sin will be removed and bring final salvation at Jesus' return, Heb 9:28
  • Hope will no longer be necessary at Jesus' return, Titus 2:13
  • Preaching the Gospel will terminate with Jesus' return, Matt 24:14, Mark 13:10
  • etc

Note the comments of Albert Barnes:

Till he come - Until he returns to judge the world. This demonstrates:

(1) That it was the steady belief of the primitive church that the Lord Jesus would return to judge the world; and,

(2) That it was designed that this ordinance should be perpetuated, and observed to the end of time. In every generation, therefore, and in every place where there are Christians, it is to be observed, until the Son of God shall return; and the necessity of its observance shall cease only when the whole body of the redeemed shall be permitted to see their Lord, and there shall be no need of those emblems to remind them of him, for all shall see him as he is.

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