In speaking of David becoming the father of Solomon, Matthew refers to Bathsheba as "the wife of Uriah" or "the one of Uriah" (τῆς τοῦ Οὐρίου), but 1 Samuel calls her simply David's wife.
Then David comforted his wife, Bathshe′ba, and went in to her, and lay with her; and she bore a son, and he called his name Solomon. And the Lord loved him, and sent a message by Nathan the prophet; so he called his name Jedidi′ah [beloved of Yahweh], because of the Lord. (2 Sam 12:24-25)
Yet Mt. 1:6 says:
Jesse the father of King David. And David was the father of Solomon by the wife of Uriah (lit. by the one of Uriah)
The question is why the NT writer apparently denigrates Bathsheba by calling her "the one of Uriah" since the Book of Samuel calls he "David's wife" when Solomon was conceived and furthermore states that Nathan blessed the child of their union with a name meaning "Beloved of God." Of course the OT also says that Bathsheba was once Uriah's wife, but not at the moment when Solomon was conceived. At that moment she was David's wife, so shouldn't Matthew acknowledge that fact rather saying she was "of Uriah?"