15

In Heb. 1:1-2, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states,

Αʹ Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν TR, 1550

which may be translated as,

1 God, after speaking in many parts and in many ways to the fathers by the prophets, 2 spoke to us in these last days by the Son, whom He made heir of all things, by whom He also made the «αἰῶνας».

God (i.e., the Father) is said to have made the «αἰῶνας» by means of the Son. The Greek word «αἰῶνας» is the accusative plural declension of the noun «αἰών».

The English translations generally vary in their translation of «αἰῶνας».

For example:

  • “ages” (YLT)
  • “universe” (NAB; NIV; NLT)
  • “world” (ESV; NASB1; NET2; RSV)
  • “worlds” (ASV; KJV; NKJV)

In consideration of the verb ἐποίησεν, "he created," which implies the creation of something tangible,3 how should the Greek word «αἰῶνας», noting that it is declined in the plural number, be translated and understood in this context?


Footnotes

1 Footnote: “lit. ages”
2 Footnote: Grk “the ages.” The temporal (ages) came to be used of the spatial (what exists in those time periods). See Heb 11:3 for the same usage.
3 BDAG, p. 839, on ποιέω, (1): to produce someth. material, make, manufacture, produce.

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9

Background

Hebrews 1:1-4 sets out a thesis that the rest of the book will unpack by way of encouraging its Christian audience to remain faithful.

The author's constant appeal to the Hebrew Scriptures accounts for the traditional title, "The Letter to the Hebrews", although the book doesn't look much like a letter, and it never identifies its audience as Jewish Christians explicitly. Still, given the content and argument of the book, it's easy to see why this assumption is made.

These very brief comments are a necessary backdrop to the answer to the specific question which follows.

Hebrews 1:2 text

The Greek of the Textus Receptus is provided in the question (δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν), and it is a little different from the widely adopted critical text found in NA28 and UBS4:

1:2 ... δι᾽ οὗ καὶ ἐποίησεν τοὺς αἰῶνας

(Note the inverted word order, supported by 𝔓46, ℵ, A, B, and others. It really doesn't matter for this answer, though.)

The question is about αἰῶνας, or in its dictionary form, αἰών (aiōn). As the question notes, its "normal" meaning in the Greek NT (and LXX) is an "extent/period of time" (see especially under section II in that entry for biblical citations). There are some contexts and phrases which demand this meaning, but that's not the case in Hebrews 1:2, and the variety of translations is striking, especially extending to "universe, world, worlds", again as helpfully noted in the question.

What can account for this?

The Hebrew counterpart

About 380+ times in the Septuagint (pre-Christian Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures), some form of αἰών translates עוֹלָם (ʿôlām), a very natural translation since they can both mean something like "eternity" ("a very, very, etc., long time").

This is almost exclusively the meaning that ʿôlām bears in the Hebrew Bible. However, by the time of the Midrashic literature, in rabbinic usage ʿôlām had taken on the sense of "existence, world" (from Marcus Jastrow's A Dictionary of the Targumim, etc., see the entry occupying most of the left column). Although it could still bear the sense of "eternity", this newer sense of "world" or "universe" became a very common usage.

Here's one example, chosen almost at random out of thousands. Solomon Schechter draws attention to the titles for God in relation to the world,1 noting among others: "the only [unique] one of the world". This is found in Bereshit/Genesis Rabbah 21, 5 which in Hebrew reads: יחידו של עולם (yechido shal 'olam),2 where ʿôlām is translated "world". (This is also very common in Jewish prayers, so not at all unusual.)

It should be starting to come clear where this discussion is going.

Back to Hebrews 1:2

The question about how to translate and understand αἰῶνας in Hebrews 1:2, then, turns on resolving this alternative: [a] is the word being used in its more typical sense of "eternity, long time", etc., OR, [b] is the (anonymous) author aware of and using the meaning of "world" familiar to us from later rabbinic writings, Jewish liturgy, etc., which would be emerging around the time of the composition of Hebrews (so not an anachronism!)?3 We need to factor in, too, the fact that the Greek form in Heb 1:2 is a plural form: does the translation need to reflect this plurality? or is it a stereotyped expression/idiom, in which the plural doesn't really bear semantic value?

That's a fair few questions hiding under the surface, then.

(1) In favour of [a], "ages" , we have the following:

  • this is the "normal" meaning of aiōn; and
  • ... that's about it.

Possibly, if one was reluctant to assign a Jewish-Christian provenance to Hebrews, one would argue that the author would probably be unfamiliar with this nuance/meaning. To my mind, that's a case of a conclusion constraining the evidence (and that's getting it backwards!).

(2) In favour of [b], "universe, world" (this counts as one option in my understanding):

  • this is the only time, I think, that aiōn is the object the verb "to make" (ἐποίησεν) in the Septuagint or Greek New Testament: one thinks more readily of making some thing, than making "eternity";
  • there is a parallel text in Hebrews 11:3 which suggests a consistent usage:

[ASV] By faith we understand that the worlds have been framed by the word of God, so that what is seen has not been made out of things which appear.
[UBS4] Πίστει νοοῦμεν κατηρτίσθαι τοὺς αἰῶνας ῥήματι θεοῦ, εἰς τὸ μὴ ἐκ φαινομένων τὸ βλεπόμενον γεγονέναι.

Here again, αἰῶνας is the object of another verb of making (κατηρτίσθαι, "restored, furnished"), and in which "time" would not make so much sense. And as it goes on to speak of things which are "seen", this would seem to require the "visible world", rather than "the ages", or elongated time of some kind. This, to my mind, is a very weighty piece of evidence.4, 5

And singular/plural? I'm not really sure.

Summary

My own sense is that the evidence inclines towards taking αἰῶνας to mean "world/worlds". It would take more time than I have just now to sort out the singular/plural. I only note for those interested that in the Jastrow entry on עוֹלָם linked above, the latter part of it is devoted to the nuances of the plural עוֹלָמִים glossed as "worlds".6

Bonus: One interesting outcome of this almost exclusively linguistic investigation, is that it could contribute to the modern debates about the Jewish context of the book, or at least its author. This conclusion, if persuasive, would add strength to the view that the writer of Hebrews was Jewish, or was in a Jewish milieu. Carrying that trajectory on to his audience would be a tad more tenuous, but an author using Greek αἰών to bear a nuance familiar from later Hebrew עוֹלָם is suggestive, at the least.


  1. Solomon Schechter, Aspects of Rabbinic Theology (New York: Schocken, 1961), p. 26. [It is remarkable that this edition of Schechter's valuable work, first published in 1909, is on Archive.org. Grab the PDF or one of the ebook formats!]
  2. The passage in translation (see for context): Midrash Rabbah: Genesis, p. 222 (near top of page).
  3. Hebrews is typically dated to early to mid 60s AD/CE, because the destruction of the Temple is nowhere reflected in its contents, despite ample opportunity -- indeed, necessity -- had the destruction taken place before its time of writing.
  4. It is noted by many commentators; conveniently, Marcus Dods in Expositor's Greek Testament, in vol. 4, p. 250. His discussion of this issue (takes up almost the whole left column of the page linked) is worth consulting.
  5. F.F. Bruce, The Epistle to the Hebrews (rev. edn; Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1990), p. 47 n. 17, cites LXX Exodus 15:18 (κύριος βασιλεύων τὸν αἰῶνα καὶ ἐπ᾽ αἰῶνα καὶ ἔτι, "The Lord reigns over the world, for ever and ever") as one of many examples of this usage. BDAG includes this as the third meaning in its αἰών entry, and includes 1 Tim 1:17 as a further example.
  6. This plural also occurs 7x in the Hebrew Bible, but normally taken by the Classical Hebrew lexicographers as a plural of intensity (see BDB).

Postscript

This discussion also explains why the majority of English versions (I haven't checked other modern languages) adopt a "non-temporal" meaning in translating Hebrews 1:2, as a glance at the Biblegateway listing demonstrates. It lists 55 translations, but once obvious duplicates are removed (e.g., NIVUK duplicating NIV), 32 out of 48 versions (or two-thirds) convey this understanding:

  • KJ21: worlds
  • ASV: worlds
  • BRG: worlds
  • CEB: world
  • CJB: universe
  • CEV: universe
  • Darby: worlds
  • DRA: world
  • ERV: whole world
  • ESV: world
  • GNV: worlds
  • HSCB: universe
  • ICB: world
  • ISV: universe
  • Phillips: whole universe
  • KJV: worlds
  • LEB: world
  • TLB: world and everything there is
  • Mounce: material universse
  • NOG: universe
  • NABRE: universe
  • NASB: world
  • NCV: world
  • NET: world
  • NIV: universe
  • NKJV: worlds
  • NLV: world
  • NRSV: worlds
  • NTE: worlds
  • RSV: world
  • TLV: universe
  • WYC: worlds
  • The oldest title and the only ancient title is "To the Hebrews". – user10231 Sep 19 '15 at 3:20
  • (-1) for ignoring the context of both Hebrews 1:2 and 11:3 which deal with "ages". In Heb 1 the ages are that of the prophets and that of the son, and in 11:3, the age of the unseen and the age of the seen. – user10231 May 29 '16 at 18:54
  • 3
    @WoundedEgo No - you're missing the import of the verbs of "making". – Dɑvïd May 29 '16 at 19:33
  • 1
    That's a bogus principle as is demonstrated in the next verse where Jesus is said to have "made purification": καθαρισμὸν τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν ποιησάμενος And where else do we see a plural of "ages" representing "worlds"? There is only one "world" in Genesis 1. – user10231 May 29 '16 at 19:39
  • Jesus accomplished/did/furnished the purification of sins... – Sola Gratia Jun 24 '18 at 23:49
2

The question is, “Το what does the word «αἰῶνας» refer?”

The Greek word «αἰῶνας» is the accusative plural declension of the lemma «αἰών». The Greek word «αἰών» is a third-declension, masculine-gender, nasal-stem noun. BDAG defines it as,1

BDAG, p. 33, αἰών

The noun αἰών declines as follows:

Case - Singular - Plural
Nominative - ὁ αἰών - οἱ αἰῶνες
Genitive - τοῦ αἰῶνος - τῶν αἰώνων
Dative - τῷ αἰῶνι - τοῖς αἰῶσι(ν)
Accusative - τὸν αἰῶνα - τοὺς αἰῶνας
Vocative - αἰών - αἰῶνες


Some, wishing to nullify the import of this verse with its clear affirmation of the pre-existence of the Son, assert that the plural «αἰῶνας» does not refer to material “worlds,” but rather aeons or periods of time. While the Greek word «αἰών» can certainly be translated as “age” or “aeon” (i.e., a period of time),2 this translation is untenable in consideration of the verb «ἐποίησεν». Time is an artificial and intangible construct; however, the verb «ἐποίησεν» suggests the creation of something tangible.3

In the Greek Septuagint, the Greek word «αἰών» was used to translate the Hebrew word עוֹלָם [olam].4 In writing to Jews, the author of the epistle to the Hebrews was referring to the creation of the manifold worlds which the Jews believed existed according to their tradition. By “worlds,” I mean not other galaxies, but rather, the Jews divided the world we inhabit into different parts.

For example, in the Jewish commentary Tzeror ha-Mor (צרור המור), Avraham ben Yaʿakov Saba refers to הג' עולמות (“the three worlds”):5

  1. “the lower world” (העולם התחתון)
  2. “the middle world” (העולם האמצעי)
  3. “the upper world” (העולם העליון)

Tzeror ha-Mor, Folio 3b

The same three worlds (הג' עולמות) are mentioned by Yaʿakov Luzzatto in ספר כונות האגדות (Sefer Kavonot ha-Agudot).6

Sefer Kavonot ha-Agudot, Folio 79a

The upper world (העולם העליון) is also known as “the world of the angels” (עולם המלאכים), for it is the domain of the angels as well as God. The middle word (העולם האמצעי) is also known as “the world of the spheres” (עולם הגלגלים), which includes the moons, planets, and stars. The lower world (העולם התחתון) is also known as “the world below” (עולם השפל), which is the world we inhabit.

Sefer Kavonot ha-Agudot, Folio 90a

Accordingly, in Heb. 11:3, it is written,

3 By faith, we discern the worlds to have been prepared by the word7 of God, so that visible things did not come into existence out of things that appear.8

Γʹ Πίστει νοοῦμεν κατηρτίσθαι τοὺς αἰῶνας ῥήματι θεοῦ εἰς τὸ μὴ ἐκ φαινομένων τά βλεπόμενα γεγονέναι TR, 1550

Clearly, in Heb. 11:3, like Heb. 1:2, «τοὺς αἰῶνας» refers to the created world, as Heb. 11:3 is a reference to Gen. 1:1 in which the heaven (sky) and earth were created.

Franz Delitzsch concurs, thus commenting,9

Delitzsch, Commentary on the Epistle to the Hebrews, Vol. 1, p. 43, Heb. 1:2


Footnotes

1 BDAG, p. 32-33; Thayer, p. 18-20
2 Ibid.
3 BDAG, p. 839, on ποιέω, (1): “to produce something material, make, manufacture, produce.”
4 Thayer, p. 19, §2
5 Folio 3b
6 Folio 79a, 90a
7 or “decree”
8 or “phenomena”
9 p. 43


References

Arndt, William; Bauer, Walter; Danker, Frederick William. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. 3rd ed. Chicago: U of Chicago P, 2000.

Avraham ben Yaʿakov Saba (עברהם בן יעקוב סבע). Tzeror ha-Mor (צרור המור). Venice: Cavalli, 1567.

Wilke, Christian Gottlob. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Being Grimm Wilke’s Clavis Novi Testamenti. Trans. Thayer, Joseph Henry. Ed. Grimm, Carl Ludwig Wilibald. Rev. ed. New York: American Book, 1889.

Yaʿakov ben Yitzchak Luzzatto (יעקב בן יצחק לוזאטו). Sefer Kavonot Ha-Agudot (ספר כונות העגדות), also known as Kaftor veFerach (כפתור ופרח). Amsterdam: Asher Anshel ben Eliʿezer Chazan, 1709.

  • It looks like we're thinking along much the same lines. :) How sure are you that the 16th C. mystical texts you cite inform what the author of Hebrews had in mind? Jastrow's entry gives some earlier citations, which are either more simple (e.g., two worlds: this world, and the world to come), or more effusive ("three hundred and ten worlds", Sanh. 100a). Marcus Dods associates the end of Heb 1:2 (citing several others) as resonant with Philo, which is appealing chronologically, of course. – Dɑvïd Jan 30 '14 at 8:19
  • Thanks for those replies (and the generous encouragement!). I absolutely take your point about lengthy oral tradition: seeing this comment reminded me of a story I heard Michael Stone tell (some years ago, hazy memory, details may be off here), about encountering in a small Italian village some local stories about Adam and Eve that tallied with some Jewish pseudepigraphical tradition now known only from some long lost source. To him it was clear there had been an oral tradition at work, running over centuries. | And yes, on ha-zeh/ha-ba' you're quite right. I must need more coffee. :) – Dɑvïd Jan 30 '14 at 9:17
  • 1
    P.s. Interesting that in Tzeror ha-Mor, it's עולמות rather than עוֹלָמִים. I see both forms of the plural are cited in Jastrow - I hadn't noticed before. – Dɑvïd Jan 30 '14 at 9:36
  • 1
    (-1) Hebrews 11 is about the faith of the ancients as they held convictions of things that were still future to them. By this faithful assurance they obtained approval from God. Faith understands that the ages have been arranged so that what is promised comes out of what we can't see. The words and the assertions have nothing to do with Genesis 1. – user10231 May 29 '16 at 18:49
0

The literal translation:

in these last days did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He did make the ages; (YLT)

The attempt to present the meaning as restricted only to the material universe or “worlds” misrepresents the writer’s message. Had they intended a reader to understand “world” they would have done so:

For we who have believed do enter that rest, as He has said: “So I swore in My wrath,‘They shall not enter My rest,’” although the works were finished from the foundation of the world (κόσμου). (4:3 NKJV)

It is somewhat obtuse to rely on linguistic complexities to override basic meanings of words. If the writer had intended "worlds" they could have easily done so by using "kosmos" rather then expect the average reader to research and determine the writer wrote αἰῶνας but really meant κόσμου.

The letter was written to Jewish Christians. A Jewish Christian was someone who had accepted Judaism and now also believed Jesus was the Christ. If Jesus was the Christ, then the promised Messianic Age should be at hand. However, the world events did not line up with the expectations the Jewish people had for the Messianic Age: their land was still under the control of the Gentiles and the people remained scattered. While a Gentile Christian (both then and now) await the return of Christ, one who was Jewish also awaited the restoration of the kingdom of Israel:

Therefore, when they had come together, they asked Him, saying, “Lord, will You at this time restore the kingdom to Israel?” And He said to them, “It is not for you to know times or seasons which the Father has put in His own authority. (Acts 1:6-7 NKJV)

As noted in the OP’s answer to their question:

Time is an artificial and intangible construct; however, the verb «ἐποίησεν» suggests the creation of something tangible.

Time may be an intangible construct but the measurement of time requires tangible events. So any period of time, season, or age will be defined by real events. For example, the 1,000 year reigns described in Revelation are tangible and they are defined by the rule (or lack of rule) by The Christ. One thousand years may be an intangible construct but the 1,000 year reign is a tangible event.

In this case it is nonsense to preclude a meaning of “age” on the basis of a verb which suggests something tangible because that is exactly how the message begins: something tangible happened. God has spoken by The Son. The Christ is now the heir of all things.

This in no way diminishes the role of the Christ in creation. That He made all things is clearly stated elsewhere. That is not in question. The issue is the uniquely Jewish concept of a Messianic Age and how the appearance of The Christ did not also bring the changes a first century follower of Judaism had been taught to expect. So the letter is written to those believers encouraging them to hold fast to the promise that Jesus is The Christ despite the reality the expected restoration of the Kingdom of Israel was not also happening.

The meaning is that not only did Jesus create all things; He also creates and defines all ages.

0

The law and the prophets were until John:

New American Standard Bible Luke 16:16 "The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John; since that time the gospel of the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it."

The arrival of the king ended the age of the law and the prophets and inaugurated the kingdom age. These are the ages in view:

YLT Hebrews 1: 1 In many parts, and many ways, God of old having spoken to the fathers in the prophets, 2 in these last days [of the prophets] did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all [these] things, through whom also He did make [delineate] the ages;

Matthew 24 graphically describes the end of the temple-centric age:

YLT Mat 24:3  And when he is sitting on the mount of the Olives, the disciples came near to him by himself, saying, 'Tell us, when shall these be? and what is the sign of thy presence, and of the full end of the age?'

-1
  1. In Colossians 1:16, we read: "For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities." NIV

This verse makes the obvious claim that ALL that exists ("visible and invisible") was created by God. Therefore, the claim presented by one of the responders - "...'he created'... implies the creation of something tangible," is mere supposition and not supported by Scripture. It is true that the verb used in Colossians 1:16 is "κτίζω" (Strong's 2936: create, form, shape, make), while the verb used in Hebrews 1:2 is "ποιέω" (Strong's 4160: make, manufacture, construct), but there is no logical conclusion which demands that when God made the "αἰῶνας" in Hebrew 1:2, He made something "tangible," since we are not told whether the "αἰῶνας" were made from something visible or invisible.

  1. The idea that we can rely on Rabbinical "scholarship" to interpret Scripture, especially Apostle Paul's writings (it is assumed that the Letter to the Hebrews was authored by Paul), is dubious at best. This would be akin to arguing that one of Jesus' disciples could have received a clear answer about The Messiah by questioning the Sanhedrin. Sorry, it won't do.

  2. The only way to determine the meaning of "αἰῶνας" in Hebrews 1:2, or anywhere else in Scripture for that matter, is by comparing the use of that word and its derivatives in various passages in Scripture. There many places where the word is used - one author above mentions "380+" - but for this matter two examples will suffice.

3.1 In 1Timothy 1:9, the phrase "πρὸ χρόνων αἰωνίων" is translated as follows:

  • "before the world began" KJV
  • "before times eternal" ASV
  • "before the beginning of time" NIV
  • "from all eternity" NASB
  • "before the world was" NMB
  • "before he made the world" WE
  • "before worldly times" WYC
  • "before the ages began" NRSV
  • "ages ago" RSV
  • "before all time and ages" NTE
  • "before the times of the ages"
  • "eons and eons ago (before time itself existed)" VOICE
  • "before Yamim HaOlam" OJB

What a confusing mess!!!

I think that all can agree that whatever took place in "πρὸ χρόνων αἰωνίων" had the following sequence:

  • "πρὸ" (Strong's 4253: Preposition meaning "before")
  • "χρόνων" (Strong's 5550: Noun, Masculine meaning "times")
  • "αἰωνίων" (Strong's 165: Noun, Masculine, meaning "an age, a cycle of time")

NOTE: I am not a grammarian, but I can detect, intuitively, that the word "αἰωνίων" is the adjectival form of the noun "αἰών." So, if the adjective "αἰωνίων" is a derivative of the noun "αἰών," whose meaning is "an age, a cycle of time," then it follows logically that the adjective "αἰωνίων" must also refer to TIME rather than SPACE. In plain English, a "daily newpaper" is one that is issued every day; a "weekly magazine" is one that is produced every week; a "monthly newsletter" is one that is produced every month; a "centennial event" takes place once every 100 years, a "millennial kingdom" lasts 1000 years, and "eonian times" are times which pertain to the eons. They pertain to the "eons" and not an "eon" since God created "eons" in Hebrews 1:2 and not just one "eon." Indeed, the adjectival form or the word English word "eon" - a cognate of the Greek "αἰών" - is "eonian" - the English cognate of the Greek "αἰωνίων."

It is ironic that of the 58 translations at "Bible Gateway," from which the examples above were taken, and which include the KJV and others which make reference to SPACE (i.e., "world"), not TIME (i.e., "eon"), or absurdities such as "before times eternal" in the ASV, incomprehensible terms such as "before Yamim HaOlam" in the OJB, the one translation which makes most sense grammatically - "before times eonian" - is conspicuously absent.

The text in 1Timothy 1:9 makes it clear, beyond refutation, that the subject in the passage has to do with TIME and not SPACE.

3.2 In Ephesians 2:2, the phrase "τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ κόσμου τούτου" is translated as follows:

  • "the course of this world" KJV
  • "the ways of this world" NIV
  • "age of this world" YLT

In addition to the erroneous ways in which the word "αἰῶνα" appears in most English translations (YLT and others like it have it somewhat correct), what is lost on most readers of English Bibles is the fact that both "αἰῶνα" and "κόσμου" are used in the same expression, which conclusively proves that these words have such different meanings from each other that Paul, the author of the letter the Ephesians, deemed it necessary to use both words in the same sentence to express his thoughts. Of course, to English readers today the expression "the eon of this world" has a strange sound, but that is only because their ears have been dulled by incorrect translations. Eon ("αἰῶνα"), which is a unit of time, and world ("κόσμου"), which is a unit of space are connected in the sense that for each corresponding "world" there is a corresponding "eon."

NOTE: Technically speaking, the word "κόσμου" does not even mean "world" but "system" - i.e, an order of things.

I will be happy to respond personally to anyone who is interested. Please contact Gabe at gabealexander55@gmail.com.

  • So would you agree then that what is in view is the "delineation of the ages"? IE: The era of the prophets vs the era of the son? – Ruminator Oct 10 '17 at 21:58
  • tI have no idea what "the era of the prophets" or "the era of the son" is, let alone contrasting one against the other. I do not even know what this has to do with Hebrews 1:2 or the question I asked. The purpose of my question was to determine what the author of Hebrews meant when he wrote that God created the "αἰῶνας." If you agree that He created the "eons" - the English cognate of "αἰῶνας," then I would invite you to tell me what the "eons" are and what is their purpose. – Gabe Oct 11 '17 at 6:30
  • I don't mind a rating of "-1" but it would be useful to know what is particularly scripturally incorrect about my answer. – Gabe Oct 14 '17 at 18:03
  • In fact, κόσμος is a word with several meanings. See, for example, Liddell & Scott. – Paul Vargas Nov 1 '17 at 18:33

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