I personally like the question because it gives us the opportunity to address verses that "seem" to contradict each other and that's how we learn.
Jesus Himself stated the following verses. John 5:37, "And the Father Himself, who sent Me, has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His form." John 6:46, "Not that any man hath seen the Father, except he who is from God, he hath seen the Father."
Because of the Son's position and His relationship with the Father, (John 1:18), Jesus is the only physical manifestation of the Father. (John 14:9). The Father has no separate manifestation from the Son. What is known of the Father is revealed through the Son. To see the Son is to see the essence/nature of the Father, (John 1:1,18;John 10:30, 12:45; Colossians 1:15; Hebrews 1:3.
Now, here is Genesis 17:1-2, "Now when Abraham was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me and be blameless, vs2, And I will establish My covenant between Me and you, And I will multiply you exceedingly."
God could not be more clear with His words that He appeared to Abram. So how do we determine what kind of an appearance this was? An ecstatic vision, in a dream or was it a physical appearance? From the context at Genesis 17:22 gives the answer, "And when He finished talking with him, GOD WENT UP FROM ABRAHAM."
This is backed up at Genesis 18:1, "Now the Lord appeared to him by the oak of Mamre, while he was sitting at the tent of the door in the heat of the day." There was an extensive dialogue between the Lord God and Abraham. The last verse says, "And as soon as He had finished speaking to Abraham the Lord departed; and Abraham returned to his place."
Job 42:5 was mentioned as seeing God. The following explains that it was not a "physical" seeing with the eyes. In what sense did Job see God? (Job 42:5) The answer with the green check did an excellent job in explaining Job's seeing.
At John 12:41, "These things Isaiah said, because he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him." The Apostle John is referencing Isaiah 6:1, "In the year of King Uzziah's death, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted, with the train of His robe filling the temple."
Isaiah saw the glory of YHWH. John says that Isaiah saw "his" glory, the glory of Jesus. the verb Isaiah used for "saw" in 6:1 is ("ra'ah"). In the qal, it refers to the act of seeing in the literal sense, to see with the eyes (as opposed to, for example, "machazeh," which is the act or event of an ecstatic "vison")
In referring to the event, John uses the Greek word ("eidon") - also a verb referring to the act of seeing with the eyes in the natural sense. There's a lot more information on this subject of "Who did men see and in what form did they see Him in the Old Testament" at Genesis 16 and at Genesis 22.