And the seventh angel poured out his vial into the air; and there came a great voice out of the temple of heaven, from the throne, saying ‘It is done’ (Revelation 16:17).
I am aware that another Biblical Hermeneutics question has been asked about this verse, but my question has nothing to do with grammar: Why did H.S direct John to use the word for "to happen" in Revelation 16:17 instead off the normal word for "to complete"?
To put things into context, here is a brief summary of the events in Revelation chapters 15 and 16:
Revelation 15: Those who gained the victory over the beast and over his image stand on the sea of glass. Seven angels come out of the temple in heaven having the seven plagues and given seven golden vials full of the wrath of God. No man could enter into the temple till the seven plagues of the seven angels were fulfilled.
Revelation 16 – The seven vials of the wrath of God poured upon the Earth:
• Sores on men
• The Sea as blood
• Rivers and waters as blood because they shed the blood of the saints/prophets (verse 6)
• The Sun scorches men
• The Kingdom of the Beast is full of darkness – men blaspheme God and do not repent (v 10 & 11)
• The River Euphrates dries up for the kings of the east to advance (verse 12). The spirits of devils, working miracles, to gather them to the battle of Armageddon (verses 14-16). Then verse 17 says: “And the seventh angel poured out his vial into the air; and there came a great voice out of the temple of heaven, from the throne, saying ‘It is done’.”
• A great Earthquake divides the great city into three parts and the cities of the nations fall. Great hail causes men to blaspheme God because of the exceedingly great hail (verse 21).
Are there any Bible Commentaries that shed light on what is done in Revelation 16:17?