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Many teach that the coming of Christ in Mat. 24 to gather his elect is His descent to the earth to establish God's Kingdom, rather than a descent to the sphere of the clouds to gather the elect and bring them to heaven.

...and they shall gather his elect from (out of Gr.1537) the four winds (the four corners of the earth, the earthy sphere) from (away from Gr.575) one end of the heavens (pl.no art) to (unto Gr.2193) the other.

When we turn to Mark 13:27 we shall get more insight into this passage.

shall gather his elect from (out of Gr.1537) the four winds (earthy sphere) away from (Gr.2193) the one end of earth unto (Gr.2193) the end of the Heaven (sing).

The one end of the heavens in Matthew is explained in Mark as being the one end of the earth. The unto the other (end of the heavens) in Matthew is explained in Mark as, "the" Heaven, the abode of GOD, that the great multitude which came out of (Gr.1537) the tribulation where delivered unto (Rev.7:14; Mt.24:13,22,29-31).

After the day of the Lord's judgments, the Lord will indeed return to establish his kingdom, but before this, the elect will be saved from the persecutions of the tribulation and delivered from the wrath of God that is to come upon the earth.

Is the Greek here saying that the elect will be gathered out of the earth (the four winds) away from one end of the heavens (the earthly sphere), unto (delivered unto) the other (the heaven, the abode of God), which is in accord with the three-tiered universe of (ANE) cosmology?

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  • This is a theological question about the systems of eschatology and would be better asked on Christianity SX.
    – Dottard
    Jan 30, 2023 at 21:52
  • See 1 Thess 4:16, 17.
    – Dottard
    Jan 30, 2023 at 22:33
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    yes but has to do with greek words Jan 30, 2023 at 22:56
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    Glad to have you on Hermeneutics! This question could stay here on this site if you tone down the "disproves ...dispensational positions" talk. So, please edit that out and just ask if the Greek has any insight on the nature of this "Gathering of the elect" and, if not, then what do we learn from the Greek about this. I am concerned that if we migrate this to C.SE, you'll just get a systheo debate and the question will likely be seen as a duplicate. If you want to focus on the Greek, then cut out 90% of that debate content C.SE would address; like doing one question at a time. Cheers!
    – Jesse
    Jan 31, 2023 at 0:15
  • ...addressing two passages is fine for this if they are from Gospels covering basically the same content. But, we can't bring in other passages, such as Revelation, in the same question because that would indeed be systheo. If you want to ask about the Greek's bearing on the same topic from Revelation, just ask another question. This is because questions need to be about specific Bible passages, usually only one with exceptions, and never systems.
    – Jesse
    Jan 31, 2023 at 0:17

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