Assuming that the MT for Ruth 4:3 is what the OP means by "the original", then the original (Codex Leningrad) is:
וַיֹּ֙אמֶר֙ לַגֹּאֵ֔ל חֶלְקַת֙ הַשָּׂדֶ֔ה אֲשֶׁ֥ר לְאָחִ֖ינוּ לֶאֱלִימֶ֑לֶךְ מָכְרָ֣ה נׇעֳמִ֔י הַשָּׁ֖בָה מִשְּׂדֵ֥ה מוֹאָֽב
The word meaning to sell is מָכְרָ֣ה, mochrah. This word is in feminine gender completed form. The closest English translation for this word in isolation is "[she] has sold [the field]". This explains the YLT "hath Naomi sold" and the NKJV "sold the piece of land".
However, when translated in context, the meaning is quite different. First of all, the narrative context is that the field has in fact not yet been sold. The reason that the elders have assembled, is to certify the redeemer who will purchase the field in the immediate future. So in context, the NKJV and YLT both create a contradiction that needs to be explained.
Secondly, in the intent of the Boaz's statement to the redeemer is to serve legal process, to notify the redeemer that Naomi has made a (completed) decision to sell the field. That is, the perfect form of the verb refers to the completed intent to sell, rather than the act of the sale which cannot occur until the redeemer is certified. In her heart Naomi has already sold the field. It's as good as sold as far as she is concerned.
So, the translation that is closest to the meaning of the verse in the MT in modern English is the NIV. The NASB interpolates "has to sell", for which there is no basis in the Hebrew words of the verse.
This verse provides a sterling example of how "literal" translations that translate words out of context from one language to another can result in nonsense or create apparent textual problems when there are none.
The use of perfect forms such as "said", "wrote", and here "sold" to indicate completed intent to execute an action rather than the completion of the action itself is not unusual in the MT.