Did the writers of Jonah employ dramatic irony by making Jonah aware that by successfully convincing the people of Nineveh, the capital of Assyria, to repent, he would set in place events that would see the conquering and enslavement of his own people.
2 Kings 15:29
In the days of Pekah king of Israel came Tiglathpileser king of Assyria, . . . Gilead, and Galilee, all the land of Naphtali, and carried them captive to Assyria.
2 Kings 17:5
Then the king of Assyria came up throughout all the land, and went up to Samaria, and besieged it three years.
This provides a very good motivation, Jonah 4:1,
But it displeased Jonah exceedingly, and he was very angry.
It has been my assumption that the authors of Jonah knew this, and assume readers knew this. However, if this was written before the destruction caused by Assyria, then my understanding is flawed. Is there any way that the text of Jonah was written or modified after the destruction of Israel?