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Hebrews 1:1-2: God, who [a]at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things,…

Isaiah 9:6-7: 6 For unto us a Child is born, Unto us a Son is given; And the government will be upon His shoulder. And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. 7 Of the increase of His government and peace There will be no end, Upon the throne of David and over His kingdom, To order it and establish it with judgment and justice From that time forward, even forever. The zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this.

Is there a direct interconnection between Isaiah 9:6-7 & Hebrews 1:1-2 within the broader context of Hebrews 1 regarding the “all things pertaining to God” which the Son was appointed Heir?

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    You will need to clarify this question. The only connection is the obvious one that both apply to Messiah. So, what, more precisely, are you asking. There is no linguistic link between these two passages.
    – Dottard
    Aug 20, 2022 at 12:25
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    as indicated in my answer below Isaiah may not have referred to the Messiah as understood in Christianity. So the question is answerable in it's current form IMO. For Jews and bible critics the answer is no. For Christians it is yes. Aug 20, 2022 at 18:55

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Yes and no. The answer depends on whether one wishes to affirm Christian theology or understand the Books of Isaiah and Hebrews in their historical context and/or the viewpoint of Judaism.

First "no."

The person Isaiah referred in his own mind was probably King Hezekiah, in whom Isaiah had great hope. See Who is the child in Isaiah 9:5-6?by Gerald Sigal. Regarding the titles "Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace" R. E. Clement says:

"The series of four names... derives from the Egyptian practice of giving throne names to the Pharaoh...The Egyptian practice was for a series of five names to be given, suggesting that this was originally the case here, and that one name has been lost in the transmission."

Isaiah was not implying that the "son" would be literally "Mighty God" but divine in might. He would be "Eternal Father" in the sense that he would re-establish the divine blessing on the throne of David, which God promised would last forever. But Isaiah does not envision this "son" as the "heir of all things." He is not a new Adam, the original heir of God on earth, but is a divinely appointed Davidic king who would restore Judah and Israel's greatness.

Now for "yes."

From the standpoint of Christian theology, the son referred to in Isaiah should be spelled with a capital "S." He is not only God's anointed Messiah but the eternally begotten Son of God. He is also the "second man" (1 Corinthians 15:47), a New Adam. Since God gave Adam the blessing of dominion over all things (Gen. 1:28), this blessing is also given to Jesus. Therefore "appointed heir of all things" in the Book of Hebrews is definitely connected to the Isaiah's prophecy. The "Son" in Isaiah is identical with "second Adam" of Paul and the "heir of all things" described in Hebrews.


Thus, the answer to the question in the O.P. depends entirely on whether one understands Isaiah from a Jewish and/or historical-critical perspective, or from the standpoint of traditional Christian theology.

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  • What do you mean eternally begotten?
    – Steve
    Aug 20, 2022 at 21:13
  • this refers to traditional christian theology as expressed in the Nicene creed. "the Only Begotten Son of God, born of the Father before all ages." Being born before time places the "begetting" in the realm of eternity. See Eternally Begotten Son Aug 20, 2022 at 23:52
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The operative word, "heir" in Heb 1:2 is κληρονόμος (kléronomos) is used three ways in the NT:

  • parabolically of Jesus, Matt 21:38, Mark 12:7, Luke 20:14
  • Of Christians (usually in the plural) and patriarchs being heirs of the covenant promises by faith etc, Rom 4:13, 14, 8:17, Gal 3:29, 4:1, 7, Tit 3:7, Heb 6:17, 11:7, James 2:5.
  • Directly of Christ as Messiah, Heb 1:2.

Thus, Heb 1:2 is the only place that the noun κληρονόμος (kléronomos) refers to Jesus apart from the those used parabolically.

There is a similar situation with the cognate verb, κληρονομέω (kléronomeó) where all refer to Christians inheriting the kingdom or promises, etc, and only the instance in Heb 1:4 refers to Jesus. Let me put these side-by-side:

Heb 1:2 - But in these last days He has spoken to us by His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, and through whom He made the universe.

Heb 1:4 - So He became as far superior to the angels as the name He has inherited is excellent beyond theirs.

Some of what "all things" (V2) include are listed in Heb 1 such as:

  • (V4) a name or reputation superior to all others, compare John 17:5, Phil 2:9-11
  • (V8) the eternal heavenly throne, compare Heb 1:13, 8:1, 12:2, Rev 5:1-8, Ps 110:1, Matt 26:64, Col 3:1, Rom 8:34, Eph 1:20, Acts 2:33, 1 Peter 3:22, etc, and thus, rulership and king of the universe
  • (V13) rulership over all enemies

That is, Jesus was made heir and king of the heavenly kingdom of God.

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