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I have been doing a detailed study of 1 Cor 11:4, and I need to know if the two Greek words πᾶς ἀνὴρ should have been translated as

Stephanus Textus Receptus 1550 - 1 Corinthians 11:4

πᾶς ἀνὴρ προσευχόμενος ἢ προφητεύων κατὰ κεφαλῆς ἔχων καταισχύνει τὴν κεφαλὴν αὐτοῦ

4 Every man asking or planning down concerns of the Template has shamed himself.

Also I need to know if the three Greek words πᾶσα δὲ γυνὴ found in 1 Cor 11:5 should have been translated as

Stephanus Textus Receptus 1550 - 1 Corinthians 11:5

πᾶσα δὲ γυνὴ προσευχομένη ἢ προφητεύουσα ἀκατακαλύπτῳ τῇ κεφαλῇ καταισχύνει τὴν κεφαλὴν ἑαυτῆς· ἓν γάρ ἐστιν καὶ τὸ αὐτὸ τῇ ἐξυρημένῃ

5 But every woman asking or planning not exposing the husband's concerns, shames herself; for it's one and the same as if she shaved her hair off.

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    I know that ἀνὴρ always means man/male. If the writer is intending to say "everyone", he will use anthropos.
    – Narnian
    Dec 30, 2013 at 13:56
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    I don't see how we can ignore the rest of the sentences when translating these words. The context forces a particular translation, I think. Dec 30, 2013 at 15:57
  • @BruceAlderman Context added.
    – Decrypted
    Mar 1, 2016 at 23:27

1 Answer 1

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I would love to make a long, boring answer, but this is basic Greek and can be referenced in any Greek grammar.

πᾶς ἀνὴρ - "every man"

πᾶσα δὲ γυνὴ - "but every woman"

δέ is what grammarians call a "postpositive" and never comes first in a Greek clause, although it does come first in the English translation of the Greek clause. That is why it is located where it is; it should not be translated as "everyone but women" (not to mention, γυνὴ is singular).

On the subject of the agreement of nouns and adjectives according to case, gender, and number, see Mounce, William D., Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar, Second Edition, Sec. 9.8, p. 65. On the subject of the postpositive δέ, p. 41, footnote 14.

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  • What about "Everyone but wife"? I need to confirm that there is absolutely no possibility that it is saying "Everyone but wife".
    – Decrypted
    Dec 31, 2013 at 19:07
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    There's absolutely no possibility. The Greek would have to say "πάντες εἰ μὴ [ἡ] γυνὴ..."–
    – user862
    Dec 31, 2013 at 21:10

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