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At John 20:28, Thomas famously exclaims
"My Lord and my God!"
This could be translated in different ways. In particular, 'Lord' is ambiguous (Adonai or Adoni?) and 'God' is ambiguous (God or god?)
"My LORD (= Adonai in Hebrew) and my God!"
"My Lord (= Adoni in Hebrew) and my God!"
"My Lord and my god!"
In the Greek, it's
"O Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου"
Assuming Thomas was actually speaking in Aramaic, what are our options for the words and their sense originally spoken?
The proper name יהוה ("Yahweh," "LORD") does not take the possessive suffix י ("my"). We know therefore that κυριος ("Lord") does not translate יהוה (the Tetragrammaton, or the Divine Name). However, we know that θεος μου ("my God") can only be understood absolutely, since there is, for the monotheist ("one-god-ist"), only one God who is "his God." Cf. 1 Cor 8:6; Deut 6:4.
Therefore, if Thomas spoke Aramaic, he would have used: מרי ואלהי (mari wa elahi); if Hebrew, then: אדני ואלהי (adoni wa elahi).
The sense of the words in both Greek and Aramaic are "My Lord and my God!" For the Jew there is no "my a god and my a lord."
This passage destroys the idea that Thomas is referring to Jesus as anything other than his Creator. Cf. John 1:1; 16:25-30.
The information is limited to answer your question. However, there is no reason to believe the meaning of what Thomas said is not accurately stated in the Greek of John's Gospel. When my is added to a noun such as Lord and God, they are understood to have the same meaning as having the article, thus the interchange:
The article is used this way in contexts in which the idea of possession is obvious, especially when human anatomy is involved. Thus, in Matt 8:3, there is no need for the evangelist to add αὐτοῦ to what is patently evident: “stretching out his hand” (ἐκτείνας τὴν χεῖρα). -- Wallace, D. B. (1996). Greek Grammar beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (p. 215). Zondervan.
From the following Hebrew translations: Franz Delitzsch translated ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου as אֲדֹנִי וֵאלֹהָי (adoni welohai). The Bible Society in Israel translated ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου as ״אֲדוֹנִי וֵאלֹהַי!״ (adoni welohai).
In the Aramaic parts of the Tanakh, "My Lord" referring to God and not a person does not occur. "My God" occurs in Daniel 6:22 אֱלָהִ֞י (elahi). While מרי (mari) is not used referring to God in the Aramaic parts of the Tanakh, it is in the Syriac Peshitta, which translates ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου as ܡܳܪܝ ܂ ܘܰܐܠܴܗܝ (mari walohi) in John 20:28.
Most likely the pronunciation of the Tetragram was lost by the first century.
In the course of the Second Temple period the Tetragrammaton came to be regarded as charged with metaphysical potency and therefore ceased to be pronounced. It was replaced in speech by ʾadonai, “Lord,” rendered into Greek Kyrios. Often the vowels of ʾadonai would later accompany YHVH in written texts. This gave rise to the mistaken form Jehovah. The original pronunciation was eventually lost; modern attempts at recovery are conjectural. -- Sarna, N. M. (1991). Exodus (p. 18). Jewish Publication Society.
Another consideration is, by the first century, Aramaic had regional variations:
Aramaic continued unchallenged among Jews until the coming of the Greeks. It was particularly prevalent in Palestine during the time of Jesus, a period for which we use the term “Middle” Aramaic. Since the Persian empire, which had been responsible for the language’s earlier uniformity, no longer existed, it is not surprising that regional variation begins to be apparent at this time (note the reference to Peter’s distinctive accent in Matthew 26:73). These include the dialects attested in the Dead Sea Scrolls (see chapter 30) and the New Testament, as well as that in use among the Arab tribes known as Nabateans. The earliest layers of the targumim to the Pentateuch (Onkelos) and the Prophets (Jonathan) also probably date from this period. Other dialects are known from Palmyra (biblical Tadmor) and Edessa in Syria, and Hatra, which is in Mesopotamia. -- Greenspahn, F. E. (2003). An introduction to Aramaic (2nd ed., Vol. 46, p. 7). Society of Biblical Literature.
My answer focused more on the "what are the options for what he originally said?" Let's examine the context. What was it that Thomas refused to believe? that Jesus was equally God as the Father is?
Did the disciples who had seen Jesus earlier tell Thomas that Jesus was God? (John 10:25)
If all the apostle knew that Jesus was God before he was resurrected, what does Thomas statement “ Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and put my hand into his side, I will not believe.” mean?
The context shows that Thomas refused to believed the Jesus was resurrected.
Does being resurrected from the dead make Jesus God. There were people in the bible that had been resurrected from the dead and no one believed that these were God. Being resurrected from the dead would have proven that that person was not God, since God is immortal.
The context show that Jesus’ statement in John 20:17 and Thomas’ John 20:28 statement show that Jesus told those who saw him resurrected that the Father was his and their (Thomas included) God.
When Thomas touched Jesus 'wounds and saw Jesus' hands, Jesus proved that he was resurrected. Thomas' touching and seeing Jesus after he died proved that he believed Jesus was resurrected, not that Jesus is God.
Jesus continued to call the Father his God after he ascended to heaven as Revelation. 3:2; 3:12 show.
There were men in the bible that were called God/god, but, as the rest of the bible shows, these men were not the only true God. Johnathan called David O' Lord God in 1Samuel 20:12 KJB, Solomon was called O' God Psalm 45:6.
