In many translations, Deut 32:44, Moses refers to Joshua as Hoshea son of Nun (in translations such as GNV, KJV, ASV, EHV, OJB, CJB). Some translations (ie: NKJV, ESV, CSB, HCSB) have Moses saying Joshua son of Nun; suspecting the newer translations.
1st part of the question: what is the original text stating? Which translation has it correct?
2nd part or the question (applies if the original text says “Hoshea”): if the 1st generation Israelites (the ones under Moses’ leadership in the original Exodus) are dead, it stands to reason that the 2nd generation would not plainly know Joshua as “Hoshea.” What is the significance of Moses referring to Joshua as “Hoshea” in this verse and context?
I suspect its in the meaning of the name (“Save!” vs “Yahweh is Salvation”…thank you guys for the posts that translate this name), and if so, what is he telling the Israelites in this text that isn’t plainly stated?