has faith and does not have works?"
James 2:14 is the verse in question. James does not pose the first question, but the second one. Various translations put it:
“What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?” A.V.
“What [is] the profit, my brethren, if faith, any one may speak of having, and works he may not have? is that faith able to save him?” Y.L.T.
“What good is it, my brothers, if a man claims to have faith, but has no deeds? Can such faith save him?” N.I.V.
“Of what benefit is it, my brothers, if a certain one says he has faith, but he does not have works? That faith cannot save him, can it?” N.W.T.
“My brothers, what good is it for someone to say that he has faith if his actions do not prove it? Can that faith save him?” G.N.B.
Now, I’m not aware of any translations that say, “What will it profit a man to have faith without works?” though if there are any, I would dearly like to know which ones do. I doubt if such a question can be found in any translation, given that James, knowing that to be impossible, expressed himself with great care.
However, if the text could lend itself to such a question, I would like to have that explained.
Further, if there is any translation that puts verse 14 as “What will it profit a man to have faith without works?” could that be detailed?