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All 3 Synoptic Gospels record similar a teaching from Jesus given in response to a question asked by the Sadducees (what happens to the woman who marries 7 brothers in this life).


Matthew 22:30

For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.

Mark 12:25

For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.

Luke 20:35

But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage


The two key verbs are γαμέω (gameo, to marry) & γαμίσκω (gamisko, to give in marriage).

Questions

  1. Do these two verbs refer to the same thing, or would they describe different things in the contemporary Jewish culture?
  2. In the cited passages do the authors intend to describe the act of getting married or do they describe the state of being married? (In English we could articulate this difference by saying I got married on X date versus I have been married for Y years)
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    The "they neither marry" would be a reference to men marrying women, and "nor are given in marriage" would be a reference to women being given to men for marriage. Jesus is saying that the resurrected children of God do not get married period; whether men(who marry women) or women(who are given in marriage to men). This excludes "the state of being married". Obviously, if someone is currently married, they cannot marry nor be given in marriage, so Jesus' statement wouldn't have any significance if the resurrected children of God could be in the state of marriage.
    – Rajesh
    Mar 13, 2022 at 2:06

3 Answers 3

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"They neither marry nor are given in marriage" clearly refers to the act of being married. "Marry" and "given" are both verbs(i.e. words used to describe an action, state, or occurrence, and forming the main part of the predicate of a sentence). "To marry" is to perform the act of joining in marriage. "Given" is the past participle of "give", which means freely transfer the possession of (something) to (someone); hand over to. The "they neither marry" would be a reference to men marrying women, and "nor are given in marriage" would be a reference to women being given to men for marriage(according to the custom of that time), cf. Luke 17:27. Let's read the entire account that the given verses are a part of.

Luke 20:27-36 There came to him some Sadducees, those who deny that there is a resurrection, 28 and they asked him a question, saying, “Teacher, Moses wrote for us that if a man's brother dies, having a wife but no children, the man must take the widow and raise up offspring for his brother. 29 Now there were seven brothers. The first took a wife, and died without children. 30 And the second 31 and the third took her, and likewise all seven left no children and died. 32 Afterward the woman also died. 33 In the resurrection, therefore, whose wife will the woman be? For the seven had her as wife.” 34 And Jesus said to them, “The sons of this age marry and are given in marriage, 35 but those who are considered worthy to attain to that age and to the resurrection from the dead neither marry nor are given in marriage, 36 for they cannot die anymore, because they are equal to angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection. (ESV)

The Sadducees, being deniers of the resurrection, plan to trip up Jesus so as to make the resurrection seem like an absurdity. And it's not a terrible plan. The problem is, however, that it lies on an unsubstantiated presupposition; that those who are resurrected will be married..."whose wife will the woman be? for the seven had her as a wife." The Sadducees presupposed that the resurrected children of God are like the "sons of this age" who "marry and are given in marriage". But Jesus corrects this erroneous supposition by answering that the resurrected children of God "neither marry nor are given in marriage". This excludes the "state of being married" for two reasons.

(1) If the resurrected children of God could be married, but could not marry(perform the act of marriage), they would have to be in a state of marriage at the moment of their resurrection, that is to say, they are resurrected IN a state of marriage. But then Jesus' words have no significance. If you are currently IN a state of marriage, it is obvious that you cannot be given in marriage/be joined in marriage. The only ways to do that are to be either polygamous or get divorced(both of which are sinful, the latter under the exception of an act of sexual immorality on the part of either mate[which would also be sinful], and the resurrected children of God are resurrected in perfection, not sinfulness, which makes either option unfeasible). So, if we are resurrected in a state of marriage(and perfection), it is quite evident that we can neither marry nor be given in marriage; there isn't much significance to Jesus' words here.

(2) It doesn't answer the dilemma the Sadducees proffered! If the resurrected children of God are resurrected in the "state of being married", the Sadducees' question remains; to whom is the woman resurrected in a state of marriage? Is it to the first husband? The second? The third, the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, or the seventh? As you can see, the Sadducees' question remains. Jesus' answer would not be an answer!

Jesus' whole point is that the resurrected sons of God do not marry as the sons of this age do, and hence are not married(in a state of marriage). In order to be in a state of marriage, you must, of course, first, get married! Jesus' answer to the Sadducees' dilemma is this; the woman will not be married to any of the men who married her, because she cannot be given in marriage to any of the men who married her! The Sadducees' entire argument lied on an unfounded assumption(e.g. that the woman, after being resurrected, must be married); once Jesus invalidated that assumption by showing the Sadducees that the resurrected sons of God do not marry(and hence are not married[in a state of marriage]), their entire argument was obliterated.

Hope this helps! Have a good day. :)

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It explicitly refers to the angelic state, and angels need not romantic love + sex + marriage + procreation for their unspeakable bliss in the intense glorification of Trinity. Humans will be just as free and blissful, and even more than angels, yes by far more, if they reach the status of Resurrection.

Let the Heaven be not tarnished by transient earthly concerns and fleshly expectations. Let be left to Muslim “theology” - have nothing against Muslim people! - its “heaven” of non-stop sex with 70 virgins on a daily basis.

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    Since both the question and answer are independent of God's form, this would be a much more acceptable answer if it said "God" instead of "Trinity". Mar 13, 2022 at 15:06
  • @RayButterworth Trinity is principal here, because humanity would not be bestowed with a possibility of being able to be happy without romantic love and sex unless one of the Holy Trinity become man and made it possible even for celibates to be happy, without romantic love and sex. Nobody without the aid of the Incarnate Logos, the Father's co-eternal Son, His co-God can be happy while left alone. But in Christ even anchoret monks can be blissful and happy in their angelic and even supra-angelic state, for angels are still only servants, while humans are - kings and co-heirs of Christ-the King Mar 13, 2022 at 15:50
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    So you want to restrict and weaken this answer so that it is useful for only those people willing to accept the Trinity doctrine that the Holy Ghost is a third member of God. That seems very unrelated and unnecessary to me. Mar 13, 2022 at 16:12
  • @RayButterworth That intensity of presence of Holy Spirit that enables humans to be happy without sexual life was brought by Christ and only by Him. It is the same as to say: "NASA blessed the moon by trace of man on it!" instead of saying "Neil Armstrong's boot blessed the moon by trace of man on it!" The second is better and more precise, for NASA would not be able to bless the moon without Neil Armstrong. PS: and angels do not chant "Holy", but "Holy, Holy, Holy" - glorifying Trinity (Revelation 4:8). Mar 13, 2022 at 16:26
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    I don't disagree about God's holy spirit. I do disagree that a specific doctrine about the personhood of "The Holy Spirit" has anything to do with this question. In particular, this is Hermeneutics.SE, not Christianity.SE, where doctrine is more appropriate. Mar 13, 2022 at 17:27
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"… they neither marry nor are given in marriage" clearly refers to the act of marrying, not the state of being married.

Further, who did not notice what that passage said about the value… about the very idea of marriage?

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    Mar 13, 2022 at 21:20
  • @Community Bot Sorry… some things really are that simple. Still, which part didn't work for you? Mar 20, 2022 at 0:00

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