We read:

“The glory which You have given Me I have given to them, that they may be one, just as We are one;” ‭‭John‬ ‭17:22

This was in the context of Eternal life being given to the elect^^^

Compare with:

I am the Lord, that is My name; I will not give My glory to another, Nor My praise to graven images.” ‭‭Isaiah‬ ‭42:8‬

Q: So how do the elect get glory from Christ and in what way?

Also compare John 17:5 with Isaiah 42:8. I do affirm the doctrine of the Trinity, yet I am not necessarily asking about deity, but the nature of the elect getting glory from Christ.

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    Up-voted +1. God's glory is shared by those who are in union with him. It is not 'given to another' : it is shared in union. That they may be one, even as we are one. If 'one' then not 'another'.
    – Nigel J
    Mar 12, 2022 at 9:53
  • I like how the three answers so far are about "give" (Nigel J), "my glory" (me) and "to another" (ארקדיוס). Mar 12, 2022 at 10:13
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    The word Glory and all it's derivatives in Greek, Latin, and Hebrew is a very old word that means something very much like to substantiate or to be substantiated in the mind. Mar 12, 2022 at 15:00
  • Could you first clearly define "glory", in English and then say whether that came from Aramaic, Greek or Hebrew, or where? Mar 13, 2022 at 22:49
  • @RobbieGoodwin Who are you addressing?
    – Cork88
    Mar 14, 2022 at 2:34

5 Answers 5

  5       Thus says God, the LORD, 
  who created the heavens and stretched them out, [John 1:1-3]
  who spread out the earth and what comes from it, 
              who gives breath to the people on it 
  and spirit to those who walk in it: [John 16:7]
        6       “I am the LORD; I have called you in righteousness; 
  I will take you by the hand and keep you; 
              I will give you as a covenant for the people, 
  a light for the nations, [Matt. 5:14-16]
        7       to open the eyes that are blind, [John 1:4-9; 8:12-9:41]
              to bring out the prisoners from the dungeon, 
  from the prison those who sit in darkness. [John 8:31-34]
        8       I am the LORD; that is my name; 
  my glory I give to no other, 
  nor my praise to carved idols. 
        9       Behold, the former things have come to pass, 
  and new things I now declare; 
              before they spring forth 
  I tell you of them.” 
        (Isa. 42:5–9, ESV)

First of all, God said he would not give his glory to idols (another god). The glory of God in Christ John equates to God showing his glory on Sinai, the Tabernacle, and the Temple (John 1:14-18; In John 1:14 what does ἐσκήνωσεν mean?). Isa. 42:5-9 is a Messianic prophecy that shares many connections to John's Gospel. The references in square brackets above in the quote of Isa. 42:5-9 show a few of the many connections.

The glory that you have given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one, (John 17:22, ESV)

Look at the context of John 17. The emphasis is on oneness of Jesus Christ with the Father and our sharing in that oneness. Note also:

 Or do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit within you, whom you have from God? You are not your own, 20 for you were bought with a price. So glorify God in your body. (1 Cor. 6:19–20, ESV)

and also:

So, whether you eat or drink, or whatever you do, do all to the glory of God. (1 Cor. 10:31, ESV)

Thus, when God's glory truly goes to the Christian, it does not remove that glory from God, but God is glorified. As emphasized in the link above to the John 1:14 question, God's glory is often paralleled with the visible manifestation of God's presence. Thus, God's glory in the Christian is God showing his presence through what God accomplishes through them (Eph. 2:10; Phil. 2:13).

The Hebrew here makes a synonymous poetic parallel:

וּכְבֹודִי֙ לְאַחֵ֣ר לֹֽא־אֶתֵּ֔ן וּתְהִלָּתִ֖י לַפְּסִילִֽים

(and) My glory וּכְבֹודִי֙ parallels (and) my praise וּתְהִלָּתִ֖י (direct object)

to another לְאַחֵ֣ר parallels to carved idols לַפְּסִילִֽים (indirect object).

The verb I will not give לֹֽא־אֶתֵּ֔ן goes with both phrases.

Thus, "to another" refers to other gods. To translate וּ as nor is a matter of interpretation and shouldn't emphasize a difference in what is synonymous.

  • I thought God emphatically states “I will not give my glory to another NOR my praise to carved images(idols) ? It sounds like to me a twofold assertion by God here, no?
    – Cork88
    Mar 12, 2022 at 17:19
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    @Cork88 Does my edit answer your comment?
    – Perry Webb
    Mar 12, 2022 at 18:15
  • Very much so, +1
    – Cork88
    Mar 12, 2022 at 21:07
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    @PerryWebb, this argument is largely sound except for the exact language of the conclusion. The text you reference does not mention or explicitly exclude other gods, but idols. Jesus affirms the existence of other gods (John 10:34) who are God's sons (Ps 82:6). If these gods referred to as sons of God were also in union with him, then they could potentially also share in His glory.
    – Austin
    Apr 3 at 1:48

John 17:22 talks about people, the real and only image of God (Genesis 1:27). God from the beginning made people with the intention to reflect His light and glory.

Isaiah 42:8 talks about the false man made images of God. It says that idols are not gods and there is only one true God, JHVH. Statues don't represent Him.


The question answers itself :

God's glory is shared by those who are in union with him. It is not 'given to another' : it is shared in union.

That they may be one, even as we are one.

If 'one' then not 'another'.


Glory is a pretty common word. Two references to glory are not necessarily the same thing. The kingdoms of the world have "glory".

The first thing that needs pointing out is that these are two texts written in two different languages that do not necessarily relate to one another; we cannot simply assume from the word "glory".

The glory in Isaiah is God's glory - that is it is one of his inherit attributes. God does not give this to another, but although the Son is not another, he also does not require this splendour to be given him since He is God.

John 17 itself draws a clear distinction between these two glories, in verse 5 we read that Christ had "glory which [He] had with thee before the world was" in contrast to verses 22 and 24 where it is glory given. John 1:14 also talks of "the glory as of the only begotten of the Father".

Therefore, if the glory given is not the glory inherent than what glory is it?

John 17 takes place at the Lat Supper, Christ is making a prayer, and the scene is set that the subject is the events of Good Friday (John 17:1). And it is in John 17:1 talking about the hour being come that we get our first two mentions of "glorify". The Father will glorify the Son, and the Son will glorify the Father. This echoes John 12:23-25, which makes clear that the time has come for God to receive glory by the death of Christ.

Jesus has glorified the Father (verse 4), and the Father is requested to glorify Jesus (verse 5), but the "elect" also glorify Jesus (verse 10). This helps clarify that this glorification is not necessarily the divine attribute, but it also shows a similarity in how the Father, Jesus and the elect are working.

Glory is a heavy feature in Jesus' Last Supper prayer, John records some form of it some eight times. So, however, is being sent which is there just a bit more at nine times. Jesus is sent by the Father and it is in finishing that work that Father and Son are glorified. However, the disciples have also been sent by Jesus and verse 18 draws the explicit comparison:

John 17: 18 (KJV) 18 As thou hast sent me into the world, even so have I also sent them into the world.

However, there is a subject in John 17 even more common than glory or sending, and that is giving: Jesus has been given people, glory, work, power to give eternal life and the Father's word. The given people have been given glory, been sent, will receive eternal life and been given the father's word.

That the comforter will be sent and given is a major discussion point previously that evening, but what is it that immediately precedes Jesus' prayer?

John 16: 33 (KJV) 33 These things I have spoken unto you, that in me ye might have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world.

Jesus' warning that the disciples shall suffer tribulation. The glory given to the elect is the glory given to Christ, that is it is the glory to be sent into the world so that God may be glorified.


Isaiah 42:8 says God will not give His glory to another. John 17:22 Christ gives the glory that the Father gave him to believers so that believers can be one, as Christ and the Father are one. This further confirms the doctrine of the Trinity. God doesn’t give His glory to another. The Father (God) gives it to the Son (God) and the Son sends the Holy Spirit (God) who comes in Christ’s name (John 14:26, 16:5-15) and lives within believers.(1Cor 6:19; Romans 8:9-11) We thus have God residing within us, as our body is a temple to Him, and we reflect His glory as his image bearers. However, there is a strong difference between the glory we receive from God and Christ's glory because the glory we receive still belongs to God the Holy Spirit and is not our own. In comparison, Christ’s glory is at the right hand of the Father (Revelation 5:12-14), and everything that belongs to the Father belongs to Christ and vice versa. (John 16:15; 17:6-11). So God’s glory is still with God even when it is given to the believer, because it is given by the in-dwelling of the Holy Spirit.

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