1 Timothy 6:13-16 (YLT):
13 I charge thee, before God, who is making all things alive, and of Christ Jesus, who did testify before Pontius Pilate the right profession,
14 that thou keep the command unspotted, unblameable, till the manifestation of our Lord Jesus Christ,
15 which in His own times He shall shew -- the blessed and only potentate, the King of the kings and Lord of the lords,
16 who only is having immortality, dwelling in light unapproachable, whom no one of men did see, nor is able to see, to whom [is] honour and might age-during! Amen.
Leaving aside the discussion of whether the referent of verse 16 is God or Jesus, what is clear is that the attribute of immortality belongs exclusively to one being ("who only is having immortality"). If only one being possesses the attribute of immortality, to the exclusion of all others, what are the implications for human beings? Does it follow from the passage that the souls of human beings are not inherently immortal?
How should we understand the word immortality in context as an exclusive attribute and the implications this has for human souls?
On 1 Timothy 6:13-16:
- Is 1 Timothy 6:15-16 about God or about Jesus?
- In 1 Timothy 6:16 why does Paul characterize Jesus as "Immortal"?
- Who is "King of kings and Lord of lords"? God or Jesus? 1 Timothy 6:13-16 vs. Revelation 17:14
On the immortality/mortality of the soul:
- A living soul cannot exist without a body (Gen 2:7; 1 Cor 15:44-45) but killing the body doesn't kill the soul (Matt 10:28). Is this a contradiction?
- Are the spirits of the dead conscious according to Isaiah 14:9-11?
- Does Ecclesiastes 9:10 affirm that the dead are unconscious?
- Does Psalm 146:3-4 affirm that the dead are unconscious?
- Is there a contradiction between Ecclesiastes 9:5 & Luke 16:19-31?
- Luke 16:19-31 Lazarus and the rich man - literal, allegorical or a mixture of both?