Some translations render “said” in Psalm 16:2 as first person singular, while others choose second person singular. Which of these two translations has a stronger textual basis?
From what I can see, the Masoretic texts place the second person vowel pointers on אָמַרְתְּ.
You have said
The LXX has εἶπα and the Vulgate has both dixi and dicens, all of which would effectively be 1st person.
While dicens is not 1st person directly, I believe it is a gerund, which would then read in reference to the previous verb which was 1st person.
in You I put my trust, saying…
I couldn’t find this verse anywhere in the DSS. Are there any other early OT manuscripts which would help clarify the most accurate reading of this verse?
Upon further inspection, it appears that the Syriac Peshitta and the Aramaic Targum support 2nd person “You have said”, while the Sahidic Coptic supports the 1st person “I have said”. However, I still cannot reconcile which reading has a stronger textual basis.
My Lord Thouart';' My good `is' not for thine own sake; [Young's Literal Translation]