I spend my free time (and I have a bit of it in these times) reading the letters of Paul, in Greek, in chronological order.
I am working through 1 Corinthians at the moment.
Paul's references and assumptions about our understanding of what he means can be trying at times. But this time, the language itself, the construction of the Greek, does not cause the major problem, but what he thinks we should understand.
In Verse 1 Cor 11.30 there is a simple statement: Because of this, there are many weak, sick and dying among you. (all translations here are my own, if nothing else, to see if I understand what has been written).
Paul is critical of the disrespect the Corinthians are showing for the common meal. Some bring a lot of food, wine, eat it by themselves, like at a common picnic, get drunk, and others have no food at all. Paul reminds them what the eucharist is.
27 Ὥστε ὃς ἂν ἐσθίῃ τὸν ἄρτον ἢ πίνῃ τὸ ποτήριον τοῦ κυρίου ἀναξίως, ἔνοχος ἔσται τοῦ σώματος καὶ τοῦ αἵματος τοῦ κυρίου.
Therefor whoever eats the bread or drinks from the cup of the Lord unworthily will have to answer for the body and blood of the Lord.
28 δοκιμαζέτω δὲ ἄνθρωπος ἑαυτὸν καὶ οὕτως ἐκ τοῦ ἄρτου ἐσθιέτω καὶ ἐκ τοῦ ποτηρίου πινέτω·
Let every person look into themselves (do some self reflection) and then eat of the bread and drink from the cup.
29 ὁ γὰρ ἐσθίων καὶ πίνων κρίμα ἑαυτῷ ἐσθίει καὶ πίνει μὴ διακρίνων τὸ σῶμα.
The one who eats and drinks without acknowledging the body eats and drinks a judgement upon himself.
30 διὰ τοῦτο ἐν ὑμῖν πολλοὶ ἀσθενεῖς καὶ ἄρρωστοι καὶ κοιμῶνται ἱκανοί.
Because of this there are many weak and sick among you and not a few have died (fallen asleep).
My question is: what is the reason, in Paul's mind, for the ills befalling them? What does he mean by διὰ τοῦτο?
I am working with Fitzmyer's commentary in the Anchor Yale Series. On page 447 he writes.
In the history of the exegesis of 1 Corinthians, this verse has not had many interpreters.
I do not get the impression that the well-to-do (the winers and diners) are the ones who are weak, sick and dying, but rather the "have-nots" who they are disrespecting and shaming (verse 22). So it seems odd that the have-nots should be subject to the ills in verse 30 because of the bad behaviour of the well-to-do.
I wanted to think that the affluents' poor behaviour, and in particular their neglect of the poor and needy, was the reason for suffering among the weak and sick, but verse 34 made me drop that line of thinking.
εἴ τις πεινᾷ, ἐν οἴκῳ ἐσθιέτω, ἵνα μὴ εἰς κρίμα συνέρχησθε.
If someone (who can afford it) is hungry, let him eat at home, so that you do not congregate to condemnation. (once again, my arm chair translation).
I interpret this as one of Paul's solution to the problem and narrowing down the problem to disrepect of the common meal, not lack of care for the poor (as I would personally like to see it).
The end of verse 34 is frustrating:
... τὰ δὲ λοιπὰ ὡς ἂν ἔλθω διατάξομαι.
The rest I will instruct on/arrange when I come.
It seems that any questions that might have arisen will be dealt with at a coming visit. We can guess for ages on what this was. We are never told.