2

1 Corinthians 14:22:

22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. [KJV]

22 so that the tongues are for a sign, not to the believing, but to the unbelieving; and the prophesy [is] not for the unbelieving, but for the believing, [YLT]

22 So then, tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophecy is not for unbelievers, but for those who believe. [NASB]

In what sense is speaking in tongues a "sign" to unbelievers?

A sign of what?

Why would an unbeliever see it as a sign?

Related:

Improve this question
3
  • It would only be a ‘sign’ if their natural mind could comprehend what was spoken. So the ‘tongues’ in this case would need to be a ‘known’ language that the speaker was not trained in, but the hearer understood.
    – Dave
    Dec 23, 2021 at 22:56
  • @Dave - but the question is: does the 'sign' come from the content of what the speaker is saying, or from the fact that the hearer knows that the speaker is speaking miraculously in an unlearned language? In other words, is the hearer aware of the fact that a miracle is taking place?
    – user38524
    Dec 23, 2021 at 23:00
  • 2
    The ‘key’ term is ‘sign’. Biblically a ‘sign’ is some un-natural [supernatural] event that is ‘seen’ via natural senses [seen, heard, felt] but for which there is no ‘natural’ explanation. So “is the hearer aware”? Yes, or else it wouldn’t be a ‘sign’.
    – Dave
    Dec 24, 2021 at 0:22

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
1

The word σημεῖον (sémeion) is used in the NT in two senses (BDAG):

  1. a sign or distinguishing mark whereby something is known, sign, token indication, eg, Luke 2:12, 2 Thess 3:17, etc.

  2. an event that is an indication of confirmation of intervention by transcendent powers, miracle, portent, Matt 12:38, 16:1, 4, Mark 8:11, 12, 16:17, John 2:11, 18, 23, 3:2, 4:54, 6:2, 14, 26, 30, 7:31, 9:16, 10:41, 11:47, 12:18, Acts 4:16:22, 8:6, 1 Cor 1:22, Rom 15:19, Heb 2:4, 2 Cor 12:12, etc.

I would argue that is in this latter sense that σημεῖον (sémeion) is used in 1 Cor 14:22, thus we would have:

So then, tongues are for a miracle, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophecy is not for unbelievers, but for those who believe.

That is, the spiritual gift of tongues is for the purpose of reaching unbelievers when they cannot speak the same language, not for showing off in church services. That is, if an apostle find unbelievers who do not speak the same langues, then the Spirit might elect to enable the apostle to speak their language in order to evangelize them.

This is confirmed by other statements in the same chapter of 1 Cor 14:

  • V4 - but the one who prophesies edifies the church.
  • V5 - I wish that all of you could speak in tongues, but I would rather have you prophesy. He who prophesies is greater than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets so that the church may be edified.
  • V9 - So it is with you. Unless you speak intelligible words with your tongue, how will anyone know what you are saying? You will just be speaking into the air.
  • V14, 15 - For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. What then shall I do? I will pray with my spirit, but I will also pray with my mind. I will sing with my spirit, but I will also sing with my mind.
  • V19 - But in the church, I would rather speak five coherent words to instruct others than ten thousand words in a tongue.
  • V23-25 - So if the whole church comes together and everyone speaks in tongues, and some who are uninstructed or some unbelievers come in, will they not say that you are out of your minds? But if an unbeliever or uninstructed person comes in while everyone is prophesying, he will be convicted and called to account by all, and the secrets of his heart will be made known. So he will fall facedown and worship God, proclaiming, “God is truly among you!”
Improve this answer
20
  • Very fine answer. +1 Do you make a distinction between the speaker being enabled to speak a language he does not know and the hearer being enabled to understand a language he does not know. I ask because Acts 2 sounds like lots of different people groups (and languages) understanding single individuals speaking and it seems unlikely that they were speaking multiple languages at the same time.
    – Mike Borden
    Dec 23, 2021 at 22:03
  • I fail to see how verses 23-25 serve as a confirmation. Those verses seem to suggest that prophecy is more effective for converting unbelievers than tongues.
    – user38524
    Dec 23, 2021 at 22:03
  • @MikeBorden - I think Acts 2 is a case of both gift of tongues (on the believers) and gift of interpretation of tongues (on the unbelievers).
    – user38524
    Dec 23, 2021 at 22:05
  • @SpiritRealmInvestigator - that is the point - all communication must be in a language that both speaker and listener understand. Both V22 and V23-25 are true - when the apostle speaks to unbelievers who do not speak his language, by the gift of tongues he speaks their language. But in church, if everyone is speaking in an unknown language, then unbelievers will thing that are all "out of their mind".
    – Dottard
    Dec 23, 2021 at 23:13
  • @MikeBorden - see my answer to your question here >> hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/45222/…
    – Dottard
    Dec 23, 2021 at 23:16

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.