What is the meaning of ואַחַר in Ezekiel 20:39?

Question

וְאַתֶּם בֵּית-יִשְׂרָאֵל כֹּה-אָמַר אֲדֹנָי יְהוִה, אִישׁ גִּלּוּלָיו לְכוּ עֲבֹדוּ, וְאַחַר, אִם-אֵינְכֶם שֹׁמְעִים אֵלָי; וְאֶת-שֵׁם קָדְשִׁי לֹא תְחַלְּלוּ-עוֹד, בְּמַתְּנוֹתֵיכֶם וּבְגִלּוּלֵיכֶם

As for you, O house of Israel, thus says the Lord GOD: Go serve every one of you his idols, now and hereafter, if you will not listen to me; but my holy name you shall no more profane with your gifts and your idols. (ESV)

This verse is very problematic, and the commentators and all translations misrepresent it. The word "ואחר=and afterwards" seems out of place here. If it's connected to what follows "if you will not listen to me", then we are left with no ending to the conditional clause. The ESV aware of this tries to rectify this by translating "now and hereafter", connecting it with the previous clause "go serve your idols". In other words, ESV renders this as "and continue to serve them" (cf. NJPS). While this is a convenient way to "smooth out" the text, it is invalid. Besides for the fact that the word "now" does not appear in the text at all, nowhere in the OT does ואַחַר suggest continuity, neither is it a free-standing word, it is always connected to the words that follow (cf. Gen. 18:5 "and afterwards do x"). Most translations (NIV, NASB etc.) however resort to amending the text "and afterwards you shall surely listen to me", an emendation which has no basis in the ancient versions/translations. So is there a satisfactory interpretation that is also loyal to the text?

Answer 1

I found an interesting and compelling interpretation here. The author explains that Ezekiel is dexterously utilizing reverse psychology here. Ezekiel, speaking in the name of God, is frustrated with the Israelites, he commands them to do one thing, but they never listen and always do the opposite just to spite him. This is summarized in the beginning of the chapter:

and I said to them, “Each of you, get rid of the vile images you have set your eyes on, and do not defile yourselves with the idols of Egypt. I am the Lord your God.” But they rebelled against me and would not listen to me; they did not get rid of the vile images they had set their eyes on, nor did they forsake the idols of Egypt

And then again:

I gave them my decrees and made known to them my laws, by which the person who obeys them will live... Yet the people of Israel rebelled against me in the wilderness. They did not follow my decrees but rejected my laws—by which the person who obeys them will live.

Since God has, so to speak, run out of ideas, He devises a rather unusual plan, i.e., He will use reverse psychology on them. He will tell them "to go worship idols"; since they never listen to Him, they won't listen to His word this time either, only this time He will finally get a positive result, they would actually refrain from worshipping idols in an effort to spite Him. Brilliant solution! This interpretation actually fits the context like a glove. This is my proposed translation of v. 39:

As for you, O house of Israel, thus says the Lord: Go serve every one of your idols! afterwards if you will not listen to me you shall no more profane my holy name with your gifts and your idols.

In other words, if you won't listen to me this time that would be great since you'll actually stop profaning my name, and it would yield a positive result.

Alternatively, it can be translated more forcefully "afterwards you will surely not listen to me, and you shall no more profane my holy name". The first one though is closer to the original.

The word "afterwards" then refers to the utterance, i.e., after this utterance the problem would be solved. "Afterwards" signifies a complete solution to the problem, after this utterance the problem would be effectively dealt with. If it would've said ואם אינכם שומעים אלי, it would have been taken as an introduction to a punishment or a consequence which is non-existent in this case (cf. Isaiah 1:20). ואַחַר implies that there is no consequence, only that after this utterance the problem would be eliminated effectively.

---

It should be noted though, that in other instances God commanded them (or mislead them to think that it's acceptable) that they should act immorally by sacrificing children in an effort to punish them, in that case it was not "reverse psychology", just a severe punishment for their sins.