There appear two very (frustratingly) different versions of Matthew 19:17 in english translations:
And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. - KJV, YLT, (others)
And he said to him, “Why do you ask me about what is good? There is only one who is good. If you would enter life, keep the commandments.” - ESV, NAS, (others)
A comparative search reveals that the majority of translations employ the latter while some few retain the former.
The former lines up very nicely with the parallel Mark account:
And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone. - Mark 10:18 (all translations)
and the latter constitutes a dramatic departure in meaning.
At first blush it appears that these different answers are in response to different questions:
Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life? - Mark
Teacher, what good deed must I do to have eternal life?” - Matthew
But the KJV confounds it even more with this:
Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? - Matthew
I assume the difference is based upon preferred manuscript usage in the translation process and I have two questions: 1) Is the double usage of the adjective "good" present only in the manuscript base used by the KJV and a select few others?, 2) If so, is this considered a more or less reliable manuscript base than those without the "double good"?