Each of the following verses use this Greek word (English translation of it is bolded)--but a glance at them quickly shows that the word has virtually opposite meanings, with either shame or honor, depending on the text and/or context.
Having yet therefore one son, his wellbeloved, he sent him also last unto them, saying, They will reverence my son. (Mark 12:6, KJV)
Saying, There was in a city a judge, which feared not God, neither regarded man: (Luke 18:2, KJV)
And he would not for a while: but afterward he said within himself, Though I fear not God, nor regard man; (Luke 18:4, KJV)
Then said the lord of the vineyard, What shall I do? I will send my beloved son: it may be they will reverence him when they see him. (Luke 20:13, KJV)
I write not these things to shame you, but as my beloved sons I warn you. (1 Corinthians 4:14, KJV)
And if any man obey not our word by this epistle, note that man, and have no company with him, that he may be ashamed. (2 Thessalonians 3:14, KJV)
Sound speech, that cannot be condemned; that he that is of the contrary part may be ashamed, having no evil thing to say of you. (Titus 2:8, KJV)
Furthermore we have had fathers of our flesh which corrected us, and we gave them reverence: shall we not much rather be in subjection unto the Father of spirits, and live? (Hebrews 12:9, KJV)
How, then, can one actually discern which of the meanings is more accurate when translating this word to English? For example, why couldn't Hebrews 12:9 be speaking of shame, or why couldn't Titus 2:8 be referring to reverence? What about Luke 20:13--was Jesus saying the men should be ashamed when they saw the son?
How can one know which meaning is right when the word seems to have opposite meanings?