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Rome's persecution of specific Israelites who have "τὴν μαρτυρίαν τοῦ Ἰησοῦ" was poetically documented in [Revelation 12:17] - "And the dragon was enraged with the woman, and he went to make war with the rest of her offspring, who keep the commandments of God and have the testimony of Jesus [Christ]." (12:17 καὶ ὠργίσθη ὁ δράκων ἐπὶ τῇ γυναικί καὶ ἀπῆλθεν ποιῆσαι πόλεμον μετὰ τῶν λοιπῶν τοῦ σπέρματος αὐτῆς τῶν τηρούντων τὰς ἐντολὰς τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ ἐχόντων τὴν μαρτυρίαν τοῦ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ)...

But the NKJV recognizes the word "Χριστοῦ" was omitted by the Greek NU-Text and M-Text. [https://www.blueletterbible.org/nkjv/rev/12/1/t_conc_1179017]

The Textus Receptus word "Χριστοῦ" to [Revelation 12:17] may refer to the Testimony mentioned, although the addition of "Χριστοῦ" violates the commands of [Revelation 22:18].

Why did Textus Receptus add the word "Χριστοῦ" to [Revelation 12:17] ?

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There are two quite distinct questions here that are independent of each other.

Rev 12:17 - Χριστοῦ

The TR is unique in adding Χριστοῦ (= of Christ) at the end of Rev 12:17. It is absent from the UBS5/NA28 text, the SBL text, Souter's GNT text, W&H, the Majority text, the Byzantine text, Pickering's F35 text, Tyndale House GNT text, etc. This addition of "Χριστοῦ" is not even noted in the critical apparatus of UBS5 nor NA28.

The addition does violate the injuction noted by the OP in Rev 22:18.

μαρτυρίαν τοῦ Ἰησοῦ" (the testimony of Jesus)

The question about the "Testimony of Jesus has been asked here >> To what does "the word of God and testimony of Jesus Christ" refer in Revelation 1:2?

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  • What purpose did the addition of "Χριστοῦ" serve TR edition of Revelation 12 in verse 17? Nov 21 '21 at 21:01
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    @חִידָה - I do not know and can only speculate. It was probably an overzealous scribe or even Erasmus himself - I do not know.
    – Dottard
    Nov 21 '21 at 21:02

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