I previously asked the question What is the textual evidence for 'of the sins' in Colossians 2:11 ? and received an answer which I both up-voted and accepted.
Now, I am trying to discover if any manuscripts contain the singular 'sin' in that same text.
The reason I do so is that some have struggled to explain what 'body of sins' means and they have implied that there is a textual problem and they have expounded the verse as the singular 'sin of the flesh' but not given any sensible justification regarding manuscript evidence.
Personally, I can perceive what 'the body of the sin of the flesh' might mean and I can also perceive what 'the body of the sins of the flesh' might mean. Whichever it is, I can understand it.
But I am, as yet, not convinced of either reading of the text without more evidence.
I am referring to the Textus Receptus, not to the 'Critical' Text.
(Beza, Stephanus, Elzevir and Scrivener are all identical : του σωματος των αμαρτιων της σαρκος.)