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I previously asked the question What is the textual evidence for 'of the sins' in Colossians 2:11 ? and received an answer which I both up-voted and accepted.

Now, I am trying to discover if any manuscripts contain the singular 'sin' in that same text.

The reason I do so is that some have struggled to explain what 'body of sins' means and they have implied that there is a textual problem and they have expounded the verse as the singular 'sin of the flesh' but not given any sensible justification regarding manuscript evidence.

Personally, I can perceive what 'the body of the sin of the flesh' might mean and I can also perceive what 'the body of the sins of the flesh' might mean. Whichever it is, I can understand it.

But I am, as yet, not convinced of either reading of the text without more evidence.

I am referring to the Textus Receptus, not to the 'Critical' Text.

(Beza, Stephanus, Elzevir and Scrivener are all identical : του σωματος των αμαρτιων της σαρκος.)

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According to NA28 (UBS5 does not deal with this variation in the text) the following MSS have the text, τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν (= "of the sins"):

01(2), 05(1), 017, 019, 044, 075, (0278), 104, 630, 1505.

I could find no reference to the phrase being singular in any Greek manuscript.

Even the Clemetine Latin text has this:

in quo et circumcisi estis circumcisione non manu facta in expoliatione corporis carnis, sed in circumcisione Christi [= in whom also you were circumcised with a circumcision not made by hands, in putting off the body of the flesh, but in the circumcision of Christ]

The Jerome text is almost the same:

in quo et circumcisi estis circumcisione non manufacta in expoliatione corporis carnis, in circumcisione Christi [= in whom also you were circumcised with a circumcision not made by hands, in putting off the body of the flesh, in the circumcision of Christ]

Thus, I can find no manuscript support for the singular "of sin" in Col 2:11.

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