In John 19:26-27, we learn Jesus' mother Mary may have been considered a Widow to Jesus (who asks the apostle John to care for her like a son). - Since Mary's only husband Joseph was supposedly deceased & Mary's biological son James would be preoccupied serving the church in Jerusalem.
Yet Paul's (heavenly) inspired doctrine in [1 Timothy 5:3-9] provided a new definition of a ὄντως χήρας "real widow".
The command given by Paul from heaven is to : "Honor widows who are really widows." (5:3 Χήρας τίμα τὰς ὄντως χήρας)
Paul's conditional definition of a "real widow" starts in [1 Timothy 5:5] : "Now she who is really a widow, and left alone, trusts in God and continues in supplications and prayers night and day." (5:5 ἡ δὲ ὄντως χήρα καὶ μεμονωμένη ἤλπικεν ἐπὶ τόν θεὸν καὶ προσμένει ταῖς δεήσεσιν καὶ ταῖς προσευχαῖς νυκτὸς καὶ ἡμέρας)
- Mary was not "left alone" μονόω - since Jesus made John her son (John 19:26-27) & James was still her living biological son.
"Do not let a widow under sixty years old be taken into the number, and not unless she has been the wife of one man" (5:9 Χήρα καταλεγέσθω μὴ ἔλαττον ἐτῶν ἑξήκοντα γεγονυῖα ἑνὸς ἀνδρὸς γυνή)
- Although Mary was at least 60 years old, during Paul's inspired Widow Policy in [1 Timothy 5:9], If the 64 CE publication of [1 Timothy] accurately dated the epistle (31 years after Jesus' death on the cross), Mary was close to being a young widow on the day following Jesus' crucifixion (with only 1 deceased husband : Joseph & an adopted son :John & a living biological son : James & being younger than age 60).
[Question] : Would Paul's early church doctrine in [1 Timothy 5] have considered Mary to be a real widow, immediately after Jesus' crucifixion?