It seems as though much of the evidence in the OT for God having a Son, is fairly ambiguous, such as
7 I will proclaim the Lord’s decree: He said to me, “You are my son; today I have become your father. 8 Ask me, and I will make the nations your inheritance, the ends of the earth your possession. (Psalm 2:7-8).
This is a Messianic Psalm that could be referring to the coming Messiah designated as the Son of God. So, for me, one of the strongest verses in the OT referring to the preexistence of Jesus (the Word) is Isaiah 44:6:
“Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: ‘I am the first and I am the last, And there is no God besides Me.
If the Redeemer refers to the pre-existent Word, God's Son, wouldn't the second half of the verse seem to be a contradiction? Otherwise how do you interpret the verse hermeneutically?