... the appearance of his face became altered, and his garment white -- sparkling. [Young's Literal - Luke 9:29]
και εγενετο εν τω προσευχεσθαι αυτον το ειδος του προσωπου αυτου ετερον και ο ιματισμος αυτου λευκος εξαστραπτων [TR, undisputed - Luke 9:29]
... as he prayed the appearance of the face of him altered and the clothing of him white effulgent [EGNT - Luke 9:29]
When I look at the literal translation of this verse (taken largely from the Englishman's Greek New Testament interlinear but with the possessive pronouns fully expressed as the original pronouns) it occurs to me that the wording could be represented as ...
... the appearance of the face of him altered (and the clothing of him) white effulgent.
And it also occurs to me that to merely state of the face 'altered' (without further explanation) seems somewhat incongruous when the new state of the clothing is more demonstrably described.
Would not the attention focus on the features - first - and the clothing - second ?
So my question is, does the original Greek of Luke's text lend evidence to the face of Jesus being 'white effulgent' ?