1

Was the Greek term for [Heir] : κληρονόμον ("klēronómos") - always associated with divine inheritance, similar to the Ivri term for [The Heir] : הַיֹּרֵשׁ֙ ("Ha-Yoresh") | [Heir] יוֹרֵ֥שׁ ("Yoresh") also used in divine prophecy?

What are the definitive distinctions between Greek Heir κληρονόμον ("klēronómos") in Hebrews 1:2 versus an Ivri Heir יוֹרֵ֥שׁ ("Yoresh") in Genesis 15:3?

1

Genesis 15:

3 And Abram said, “You have given me no children; so a servant in my household will be my heir.”

The Hebrew word for "heir" is H3423 (Yoresh). LXX uses G2818 (klēronómos) which is the same Greek word used in
Hebrews 1:

2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe.

Was the Greek term for [Heir] : κληρονόμον ("klēronómos") - always associated with divine inheritance?

No, not necessarily. Galatians 4:

1 What I am saying is that as long as an heir is underage, he is no different from a slave, although he owns the whole estate.

This one is about earthly inheritance.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.