The prophet יְשַׁעְיָ֣הוּ Yeshayahu speaking for God YHVH states אֲנִ֥י יְהֹוָ֖ה ה֣וּא שְׁמִ֑י וּכְבוֹדִי֙ לְאַחֵ֣ר לֹֽא־אֶתֵּ֔ן וּתְהִלָּתִ֖י לַפְּסִילִֽים “I am YHVH, that is My Name; and My glory I will not give to another, nor My praise to the graven images.” in [Yeshayahu 42:8]
- The NKJV maintains an accurate English translation of the Ivrit: “I am the Lord, that is My name; And My glory I will not give to another, Nor My praise to carved images.”
Then... the author of John’s Gospel quotes Jesus the Nazarene talking about himself in 3rd-person by stating:
“Therefore, when he was gone out, Jesus said, Now is the Son of man glorified, and God is glorified in him.” ( 13:31 Ὅτε ἐξῆλθεν λέγει ὁ Ἰησοῦς Νῦν ἐδοξάσθη ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου καὶ ὁ θεὸς ἐδοξάσθη ἐν αὐτῷ· ) in [John 13:31]
“If God be glorified in him, God shall also glorify him in [Himself], and shall straightway glorify him.” ( 13:32 εἰ ὁ θεὸς ἐδοξάσθη ἐν αὐτῷ καὶ ὁ θεὸς δοξάσει αὐτὸν ἐν ἑαυτῷ, καὶ εὐθὺς δοξάσει αὐτόν ) in [John 13:32]
How can [Isaiah 42:8] possibly be true, if [John 13:31-32] is true?
- The contradiction is not because פְּסִילִֽים “graven-images” of Jesus the Nazarene accompany God’s glory in modern worship, but the phrase spoken by Yeshayahu that כְבוֹדִי֙ לְאַחֵ֣ר לֹֽא־אֶתֵּ֔ן “My glory I will not give to another”.
To clarify the [question] : Why would YHVH tell Yeshayahu that He does not give others His glory in [Isaiah 42:8], but Jesus would tell John’s author that God gives Jesus His glory in [John 13:31-32]?