How can Isaiah 42:8 possibly be true, if John 13:31-32 is true?

Question

The prophet יְשַׁעְיָ֣הוּ Yeshayahu speaking for God YHVH states אֲנִ֥י יְהֹוָ֖ה ה֣וּא שְׁמִ֑י וּכְבוֹדִי֙ לְאַחֵ֣ר לֹֽא־אֶתֵּ֔ן וּתְהִלָּתִ֖י לַפְּסִילִֽים “I am YHVH, that is My Name; and My glory I will not give to another, nor My praise to the graven images.” in [Yeshayahu 42:8]

• The NKJV maintains an accurate English translation of the Ivrit: “I am the Lord, that is My name; And My glory I will not give to another, Nor My praise to carved images.”

Then... the author of John’s Gospel quotes Jesus the Nazarene talking about himself in 3rd-person by stating:

“Therefore, when he was gone out, Jesus said, Now is the Son of man glorified, and God is glorified in him.” ( 13:31 Ὅτε ἐξῆλθεν λέγει ὁ Ἰησοῦς Νῦν ἐδοξάσθη ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου καὶ ὁ θεὸς ἐδοξάσθη ἐν αὐτῷ· ) in [John 13:31]

“If God be glorified in him, God shall also glorify him in [Himself], and shall straightway glorify him.” ( 13:32 εἰ ὁ θεὸς ἐδοξάσθη ἐν αὐτῷ καὶ ὁ θεὸς δοξάσει αὐτὸν ἐν ἑαυτῷ, καὶ εὐθὺς δοξάσει αὐτόν ) in [John 13:32]

How can [Isaiah 42:8] possibly be true, if [John 13:31-32] is true?

• The contradiction is not because פְּסִילִֽים “graven-images” of Jesus the Nazarene accompany God’s glory in modern worship, but the phrase spoken by Yeshayahu that כְבוֹדִי֙ לְאַחֵ֣ר לֹֽא־אֶתֵּ֔ן “My glory I will not give to another”.

To clarify the [question] : Why would YHVH tell Yeshayahu that He does not give others His glory in [Isaiah 42:8], but Jesus would tell John’s author that God gives Jesus His glory in [John 13:31-32]?

Answer 1

The question misses the point of glory when God is concerned.

Jesus IS the glory of God!

... the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. 2 Cor 4:4

The son is the radiance of God's glory and the representation of His nature Heb 1:3

For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ. 2 Cor 4:6

It is perfectly correct for Jesus to receive glory as the only one next to God - sitting at God's right side. God affirms Jesus' grand status as the exalted and magnified son who He made heir of all things, when He calls the angels to worship him.

And again, when he brings the firstborn into the world, he says, “Let all God’s angels worship him.” Heb 1:6

When God glorifies Jesus, He (God) glorifies Himself.

Jesus says, “Now the Son of Man has been glorified, and God has been glorified in him. 32If God is glorified in him, God also will glorify him in Himself, and will glorify him immediately. John 3:31

Answer 2

This question is really only an apparent contradiction if one begins with the assumption that Jesus is not and never was YHWH of the OT. If this is a contradiction, then there are many more of them - see the appendix below for a larger sample.

The obvious conclusion from this simple survey (in the appendix below) is that the NT teaches that Jesus is YHWH and thus, there is no contradiction between Isa 48:2 and John 13:31, 32.

APPENDIX - Jehovah's Titles applied to Jesus

There is a consistent pattern in the NT that takes many of the titles of Jehovah/YHWH and applies them to Jesus. Here is a sample.

Attribute/title	Old Testament YHWH	New Testament Jesus
Creator	Isa 44:24, 45:18	John 1:3, 10, Col 1:16, 17, Heb 1:2
Savior	Isa 43:3, 11, 45:17, 21	Matt 1:21; Acts 4:12; 2 Tim 1:10; Tit 1:4, 2:13, 3:6; 2 Pet 1:1, 11
I AM	Ex 3:13-15; Deut 32:39, Isa 41:4, 43:10, 13, 25, 45:19, 46:4, 48:12, 51:12, 52:6 (LXX)	Matt 14:27, Mark 6:50, Mark 13:6, Luke 21:8, Mark 14:62, Luke 22:70, John 4:26, 6:20, 8:24, 28, 58, 13:9, 18:5-8
God	Deut 4:35, 6:4, 32:39, Isa 44:6, 45:5, 6	Matt 1:22, 23; John 1:1, 18, 20:28; Col 2:9, Rom 9:5, Heb 1:8, 9; Tit 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, 1 Tim 3:16; Phil 2:5-8
Rock	Isa 44:8; Deut 32:3,4,15; Ps 92:15	1 Cor 10:4; Matt 16:18
Glory	Isa 42:8, 48:11	John 17:5, 24
Shepherd	Psalm 23:1; Eze 34:11ff	John 10:11-16; Heb 13:20; 1 Peter 2:25, 5:4; Rev 7:17
First and Last	Isa 41:4, 44:6, 48:12	Rev 1:17, 18, 2:8, 22:13
Bridegroom	Isa 49, 54, Jer 2, Hosea	Mark 2:19, Matt 9:15, Luke 5:34, 35
Search Heats and Minds	Jer 11:20, 17:10, 1 Sam 16:7	Rev 2:23
Lord of Lords	Deut 10:17, Ps 136:3, 26	Rev 17:14, 19:16
Lord of All	Deut 10:17, Josh 3:11, 13, Ps 97:5, Zech 4:14, 6:5, Mic 4:13	Acts 10:36, Rom 10:12, Col 1:15
Seven eyes of the LORD	Zech 4:10 (& Zech 3:9)	Rev 5:6 (Lamb)
Light	Ps 27:1, Micah 7:8	John 1:9, 8:12, 9:5, 1 John 1:5-7
Venerable	Ex 20:3, 34:14; Deut 8:19; 2 Kings 17:35-38	Matt 2:11, 14:33, 28:9, 17; Luke 4:8; 24:52; John 9:38; Rom 10:9, Heb 1:5, 6, Phil 2:10; Rev 5:6-12

This list could be extended further but it illustrates the point that the NT goes to some extended lengths to suggest that Jesus of the NT is the YHWH (Jehovah) of the OT.

Answer 3

How can Isaiah 42:8 possibly be true, if John 13:31-32 is true?

There is no contradiction, you are just misreading John 13:31-32. because such translations are not very clear-- they are literal translations. Below I have given some contemporary translations. In the verse, you quoted I inserted the words [Judas] and,[ connection] which are both implied in the original languages. The Amplified Bible has "through" and CEB has "will bring glory to God"

Jesus is glory to God -- by being faithful to the end.

Now, with Jesus’ faithfulness to death and his subsequent glorious resurrection by God’s power, still greater honor, and glory were being brought to God’s name.

John 17:1 New English Translation

Jesus Prays for the Father to Glorify Him

17 When Jesus had finished saying these things, he looked upward[a] to heaven[b] and said, “Father, the time[c] has come. Glorify your Son, so that your[d] Son may glorify you—

“John 13:31-32 "Therefore, when he [ Judas] was gone out, Jesus said, Now is the Son of man glorified, and God is glorified in [connection] with him.” ( 13:31 Ὅτε ἐξῆλθεν λέγει ὁ Ἰησοῦς Νῦν ἐδοξάσθη ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου καὶ ὁ θεὸς ἐδοξάσθη ἐν αὐτῷ· )

Isaiah 42:8 ASV

8 I am Jehovah, that is my name, and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise unto graven images.

Other translations.

Contemporary English Version

After Judas had gone, Jesus said: Now the Son of Man will be given glory, and he will bring glory to God.

Good News Translation

After Judas had left, Jesus said, "Now the Son of Man's glory is revealed; now God's glory is revealed through him.

GOD'S WORD® Translation

When Judas was gone, Jesus said, "The Son of Man is now glorified, and because of him God is glorified.

John 13:31-32 Amplified Bible, Classic Edition

31 When he had left, Jesus said, Now is the Son of Man glorified! [Now He has achieved His glory, His honor, His exaltation!] And God has been glorified through and in Him.

Answer 4

John's gospel is pretty clear that Christ, or the Davar of God, or Word, is God, and that Jesus is the Word made flesh, and therefore Jesus' glory is God's glory.

John 1.1-14 (LEB)

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. [...]And the Word became flesh and took up residence among us, and we saw his glory, glory as of the one and only from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Answer 5

Why would YHVH tell Yeshayahu that He does not give others His glory in [Isaiah 42:8], but Jesus would tell John’s author that God gives Jesus His glory in [John 13:31-32]?

Well, because Jesus doesn't actually say that "God gives Jesus His [God's] glory" in John 13:31-32.

John 13:31-32

31 When he had gone out, Jesus said,
“Now is the Son of Man glorified, and God is glorified in him. 32 If God is glorified in him, God will also glorify him in himself, and glorify him at once.

All Jesus is saying is:

1. The time has come for Jesus to be glorified.
2. God is glorified in (through/by/because of) Jesus.
3. If God is glorified in (through/by/because of) Jesus, God will (in response) glorify Jesus in (under/within the covenantal subordinated relationship with) him [God] right away.

Quite simply, John 13:31-32 does not say that God gives Jesus God's glory that is exclusive to God. Mutual glorification is not the same as equal glorification. Therefore, there is no contradiction presented.

Answer 6

By "another" Isaiah means another deity. This interpretation is corroborated by referring to carved images further in the sentence.

As stated by Jesus in J 10,30, Jesus isn't another God, he's one and the same God, which is the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit.

EDIT

As requested by commenters, I expand my answer with what's desirable, namely, if I understand correctly, referencing some secondary source with discussion related to the question. (In the short initial part I referenced the Bible twice, but that's a primary source.)

The well-researched and well-referenced article Servant Song (in Polish) states as a commonly held hypothesis that Iz 42,8-9 aren't a part of the First Servant Song but rather they continue the thought from the passage Iz 41,21-29. Which is about God challenging pagan deities and their statues to show their autonomous power or even give him any advice. Therefore it makes sense to interpret it in the same vein.