4

In Heb 10:5-9 (ESV) Christ was recorded as saying the following to God, quoting Ps 40:6-8 (but matches better with Septuagint translation)

5 Consequently, when Christ came into the world, he said,

  “Sacrifices and offerings you have not desired,
     but a body have you prepared for me;
6 in burnt offerings and sin offerings
     you have taken no pleasure.
7 Then I said, ‘Behold, I have come to do your will, O God,
     as it is written of me in the scroll of the book.’”

8 When he said above, “You have neither desired nor taken pleasure in sacrifices and offerings and burnt offerings and sin offerings” (these are offered according to the law), 9 then he added, “Behold, I have come to do your will.” He does away with the first in order to establish the second.

NLT Translation:

5 That is why, when Christ came into the world, he said to God,

  “You did not want animal sacrifices or sin offerings.
      But you have given me a body to offer.
  6 You were not pleased with burnt offerings
      or other offerings for sin.
  7 Then I said, ‘Look, I have come to do your will, O God—
      as is written about me in the Scriptures.’”

8 First, Christ said, “You did not want animal sacrifices or sin offerings or burnt offerings or other offerings for sin, nor were you pleased with them” (though they are required by the law of Moses). 9 Then he said, “Look, I have come to do your will.” He cancels the first covenant in order to put the second into effect.

Question: Is what Christ said to God in Heb 10:5-9 mentioned in one of the 4 gospels or any other place in the NT?

3
  • 1
    Simple answer, "NO".
    – Dottard
    Sep 1 at 22:06
  • The pronoun he does not refer to the direct antecedent (Christ), but rather to the OT prophet predicting his coming.
    – Lucian
    Sep 1 at 23:25
  • @Lucian So NLT translator was wrong? Sep 2 at 0:23
3

Is what Christ said to God in [Hebrews 10:5-9] mentioned in the Gospels of [Mark, Matthew, Luke, John]?

  • No.

Did the Gospels quote Jesus of Nazareth referencing the words of King דָוִד David from [Tehillim 40:7-8] or Psalm 40:6-7 in English bibles?

[Tehillim 40:7] "You desired neither sacrifice nor meal offering; You dug ears for me; a burnt offering or a sin offering You did not request." ( זֶ֚בַח וּמִנְחָ֨ה | לֹֽא־חָפַ֗צְתָּ אָ֖זְנַיִם כָּרִ֣יתָ לִּ֑י עוֹלָ֥ה וַֽ֜חֲטָאָ֗ה לֹ֣א שָׁאָֽלְתָּ )
[Tehillim 40:8] "Then I said, "Behold I have come," with a scroll of a book written for me." ( אָ֣ז אָ֖מַרְתִּי הִנֵּה־בָ֑אתִי בִּמְגִלַּת־סֵ֜֗פֶר כָּת֥וּב עָלָֽי )
* No.

Did the Gospels quote Jesus the Nazarene referencing God's preference to Chesed חֶסֶד "Loving-Kindness" over animal sacrifices from the prophet הוֹשֵׁ֙עַ֙ Hoshea in "Hosea" 6:6?

[Hoshea הוֹשֵׁ֙עַ֙ | "Hosea" 6:6] "For I desire loving-kindness, and not sacrifices, and knowledge of God more than burnt offerings." ( כִּ֛י חֶ֥סֶד חָפַ֖צְתִּי וְלֹא־זָ֑בַח וְדַ֥עַת אֱלֹהִ֖ים מֵֽעֹלֽוֹת )
Yes. - Mat 9:13 - “But go and learn what this means: ‘I desire mercy and not sacrifice.’ For I did not come to call the righteous, but sinners, to repentance.” ( 9:13 πορευθέντες δὲ μάθετε τί ἐστιν Ἔλεον θέλω καὶ οὐ θυσίαν· οὐ γὰρ ἦλθον καλέσαι δικαίους ἀλλ᾽ ἁμαρτωλοὺς εἰς μετάνοιαν )

Did the unknown author of Hebrews 10:5-9 intentionally make up a documented account of Jesus the Nazarene using King David's Psalm 40 as a messianic reference to himself?

  • Who's to say... [John 21:25] "Jesus did many other things as well. If every one of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written." ( 21:25 ἔστιν δὲ καὶ ἄλλα πολλὰ ἃ ἐποίησεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἅτινα ἐὰν γράφηται καθ᾽ ἕν οὐδ᾽ αὐτὸν οἶμαι τὸν κόσμον χωρῆσαι τὰ γραφόμενα βιβλία )

Thanks to John 21:25 for cleaning up any of our doubts.

1
  • Good answer. +1.
    – Dottard
    Sep 1 at 22:06
2

Is what Christ said to God in Heb 10:5-9 mentioned in” [snip] “any other place in the NT?” …. Possibly, but it depends on interpretation…

*2 COR 5:21 God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.

The Greek word translated “sin” in the verse above is hamartia (#266 ἁμαρτία). Hamartia usually means “sin,” but it can also mean “sin offering.”

And in the Septuagint translations of this verse uses chataah - which always means sin offering

The Hebrew word “chataah” is translated “hamartia” in the LXX and it is used in 2 Cor 5:21.”

But even if ‘harmartia’ is used, many Jews, used the Septuagint as their Bible, and so would have been very familiar with the use of hamartia as “sin offering.”

Barnes commentating on this verse in Corinthians, (Barnes’ Notes) explains that Jesus had to be a sin offering, saying he could not become “sin,” nor “a sinner,” nor “guilty.”

So depending on your view, 2 Corinthians 5:21 could be seen to support the view of Hebrews 10:5-7.

1
  • Thank you. If we believe the author of Hebrews is also Paul, it makes a lot of sense. If you find any other references, please add to the answer. Sep 1 at 21:05
1

Heb 10:

5 Consequently, when Christ came into the world, he said,
“Sacrifices and offerings you have not desired,
but a body have you prepared for me;
6 in burnt offerings and sin offerings
you have taken no pleasure.
7 Then I said, ‘Behold, I have come to do your will, O God,
as it is written of me in the scroll of the book.’”

Jesus said in John 6:

38 "I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me;"

This is pretty close to Hebrews 10:

7a Then I said, ‘Behold, I have come to do your will, O God,

Is what Christ said to God in Heb 10:5-9 mentioned in one of the 4 gospels or any other place in the NT?

There are bits and pieces here and there in the NT. Strictly and formally speaking, the answer is no.

Then what is the meaning of this:

when Christ came into the world, he said

Perhaps Christ did say it but it was not recorded in the NT.

It could also mean that Christ inspired the psalmist (David) to write the prophecy in the OT. When it was fulfilled in the world, Christ remembered having inspired David of the prophecy.

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