John 6:65 and John 14:6 together seems to imply some catch-22. The only place in the entire internet that asks or addresses this that I've found thus far is this reddit post: John 6:65 and John 14:6 seem in contradiction. Ideas? (here, I interpret OP means 'catch-22' instead 'contradiction'.) I don't get the answers there.
Ok what's up with this seeming catch-22 here: We can't get to God without Jesus, ok I get (or well, so I thought) but now we can't get to Jesus without God?
The answers in the reddit post say something about the Holy Spirit, so I guess John 6:65 actually means like we can't get to Jesus without the Holy Spirit and then this resolves the catch-22 unless you're binitarian?
If yes to (2), then why? If no to (2), then what's up with the Holy Spirit in the reddit post eg the ff?
John 14 he is talking about his work in being the connection between the human and divine natures. He has both natures and so he is the connecting point between the two. In John 6 he is talking about the fact that we need the work of the Holy Spirit dictated by the Father to awaken us to the truth of Jesus to even come to him. Different contexts talking about slightly different things.
- If yes to (2), then an additional tangential thing out of curiousity: what's the binitarian answer to this?