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Why does LXX version of Psalm 18:24 use the word “χειρῶν” [worse] instead of “χεῖρας“ [hands] like Job 17:9, when translating יָ֝דַ֗י yaday from Tehillim 18:25?

[Tehillim 18:25, MT]

“and YHVH has requited me according to my-merit, the cleanness of my-hands in His-Sight.” ( וַיָּֽשֶׁב־יְהֹוָ֣ה לִ֣י כְצִדְקִ֑י כְּבֹ֥ר יָ֝דַ֗י לְנֶ֣גֶד עֵינָֽיו )

[Psalm 18:24, LXX | https://www.blueletterbible.org/lxx/psa/18/1/t_conc_496024] “καὶ ἀνταποδώσει μοι κύριος κατὰ τὴν δικαιοσύνην μου καὶ κατὰ τὴν καθαριότητα τῶν χειρῶν μου ἐνώπιον τῶν ὀφθαλμῶν αὐτοῦ”

  • If χειρῶν can mean “Hands” instead of [worse], how did David merit righteousness in God’s Sight with the cleanliness of his hands?
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I can't answer your question about the translator's choice.

As to your second question - "clean hands" is an expression of innocence, as opposed to, say, bloody hands.

David is saying that G-d alone knows of his true innocence and in that merit he will be saved.

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