The modern translations present a real conundrum with Mark 7:19. The traditional KJV has it as:
Because it entereth not into his heart, but into the belly, and goeth out into the draught, purging all meats? (Mark 7:19, KJV)
This speaks of foods getting purged from the body via excretion--and says nothing about whether or not they were "clean," only that they did not defile the body (soul temple). But look at what this purgative effect has had on the modern versions!
New International Version (NIV)
For it doesn't go into his heart but into his stomach, and then out of his body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods “ clean.”)
English Standard Version (ESV)
since it enters not his heart but his stomach, and is expelled?" [fn] (Thus he declared all foods clean.) FOOTNOTE: Greek goes out into the latrine
Bible in Basic English (BBE)
Because it goes not into the heart but into the stomach, and goes out with the waste? He said this, making all food clean.
New American Standard Bible (NASB)
because it does not go into his heart, but into his stomach, and is eliminated?" ({Thus He} declared all foods clean.)
New Living Translation (NLT)
only passes through the stomach and then goes into the sewer." (By saying this, he declared that every kind of food is acceptable in God's eyes.)
Revised Standard Version (RSV)
since it enters, not his heart but his stomach, and so passes on?" (Thus he declared all foods clean.)
American Standard Version - 1901 (ASV)
because it goeth not into his heart, but into his belly, and goeth out into the draught? `This he said', making all meats clean.
If all foods/meats were declared "clean" by Jesus, why, after Jesus' return to heaven, is Peter still making these statements found in Acts?
But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean. (Acts 10:14, KJV)
But I said, Not so, Lord: for nothing common or unclean hath at any time entered into my mouth. (Acts 11:8, KJV)
If Jesus had actually said what these modern versions claim, clearly Peter, one of the three disciples closest to Jesus, hadn't gotten the message.
But how can anyone think that by virtue of passing through the belly and out into the toilet a food is then made or declared to be "clean"? Upon what hermeneutical basis would such an assumption be considered valid?