Please help track the pronouns and antecedents in John 1:1-5.
In the Greek, do the “He” and the “him”’s that refer to the Logos in 1-4 definitively indicate personhood/agency, or could the antecedent possibly be an “it”? (Without reference to any greater context at the moment)
What is the gender of Logos, and what does it imply about the options for translating the pronouns?
John 1 NIV:
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind.
1 ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος 2 οὗτος ἦν ἐν ἀρχῇ πρὸς τὸν θεόν 3 πάντα δι᾽ αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο καὶ χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο οὐδὲ ἕν ὃ γέγονεν 4 ἐν αὐτῷ ζωὴ ἦν καὶ ἡ ζωὴ ἦν τὸ φῶς τῶν ἀνθρώπων
οὗτος is a bit different as I learned in the links below. More like “that one”. We don’t need to discuss unless it impacts a question.
John 1:2 KJV
2 The same was in the beginning with God.
Lastly, the pronoun in 5 refers to the light, that was the life, that was in the Logos. αὐτὸ was again used there. If light φῶς is masculine, then technically a translation decision was made to use “it” rather than “him” for the light. And if light is feminine, then the translator made an error (I don’t suspect that; only say it to check my understanding). That thinking seem right? If yes, light is masculine right?
John 1:4-5 NIV
4 In him [Logos] was life, and that life was the light of all mankind. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it.
None of my questions were answered in any of these questions or their answers, but they helped me ask it better: The relationship between wisdom and light ; Who is, or are the correct referent(s) of the pronouns in John 1:3-4? ; Since the Word received life in John 1:3-4 per the UBS Greek text, can the prologue also support the Word was eternal?