In Revelation 10:6 the Greek text has, “there should be time no longer.” Yet modern translation say 'delay'. Is there warrant in the Greek for this?

Question

Revelation 10:5-6 says,

“And the angel which I saw stand upon the sea and upon the earth lifted up his hand to heaven, And sware by him that liveth for ever and ever, who created heaven, and the things that therein are, and the earth, and the things that therein are, and the sea, and the things which are therein, that there should be time no longer” (KJV)

My question centers on the angelic phrase, “there should be time no longer”. I seek to learn about the history of that text, for old translations speak of time being no longer, but new translations speak of “there shall be no more delay”. When, and why, did that change occur?

Some say that the KJV means the proclamation of prophetic time while others say the KJV means the end of time when eternity starts. Some say that the new translations mean the time gap from Christ’s return to heaven and his return to earth will not be delayed any longer. But I do not want answers going into such interpretations of what the phrase means. I want answers that will deal with the Greek text and why modern translations seem to avoid the Greek word for ‘time’, substituting it with ‘delay’.

This strikes me as eyebrow-raising, and could account for clashing interpretations, but – I repeat – I do not want interpretations. I want clarity on why, when the Greek text in all Interlinears that I have state ‘time,’ modern translations say ‘delay’ in the English column.

Edit added 11/8/21 in response to many answers claiming chronos can include the idea of a limited period, so that 'delay' is warranted. Appendix 195 of 'The Companion Bible' (Bullinger) says

(1) chronos, time, duration unlimited unless defined..." (2) kairos, a certain limited and definite portion of chronos, the right time or season..."

Here's my point. The word 'kairos' was not chosen by the angel speaking to John. The inspired text has 'chronos'. Why would some translators decide that they have chosen a better word than did the angel?

Answer 1

"Delay" is a mistranslation. Consider other verses in the New Testament where this same Greek word (chronos) is used.

There are only six other verses that use the exact same form of this word (nominative masculine singular noun). Here they are:

And he asked his father, How long is it ago (chronos) since this came unto him? And he said, Of a child. (Mark 9:21, KJV)

Now Elisabeth's full time (chronos) came that she should be delivered; and she brought forth a son. (Luke 1:57, KJV)

But when the time (chronos) of the promise drew nigh, which God had sworn to Abraham, the people grew and multiplied in Egypt, (Acts 7:17, KJV)

And when he was full forty years old (chronos), it came into his heart to visit his brethren the children of Israel. (Acts 7:23, KJV)

And what shall I more say? for the time (chronos) would fail me to tell of Gedeon, and of Barak, and of Samson, and of Jephthae; of David also, and Samuel, and of the prophets: (Hebrews 11:32, KJV)

For the time (chronos) past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revellings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries: (1 Peter 4:3, KJV)

As anyone can readily see, the word "delay" could not possibly fit into the context of any of these verses. It would be grammatically problematic, in addition to "delay" being a questionable meaning for "chronos" to begin with--it is only "by implication" according to Strong's lexicon.

This grammatical difficulty with "delay" is seemingly the backdrop of the question, which consisted, in part, of the following:

Some say that the KJV means the proclamation of prophetic time while others say the KJV means the end of time when eternity starts. Some say that the new translations mean the time gap from Christ’s return to heaven and his return to earth will not be delayed any longer. But I do not want answers going into such interpretations of what the phrase means. I want answers that will deal with the Greek text and why modern translations seem to avoid the Greek word for ‘time’, substituting it with ‘delay’.

Unfortunately, there is no such thing as a pure translation. Anyone who has studied other languages or how to translate between languages will know that there is always a certain amount of interpretation involved. While the question seeks to have no interpretation involved in the answers, this is an impossible request because the Biblical translations themselves are based on interpretations.

But does the context of the verse give us any clues? Proper hermeneutics means looking to see how the Bible will interpret itself, rather than resorting merely to commentaries.

The question considered several possible interpretations:

1. The KJV means the proclamation of prophetic time.
2. The KJV means the end of time when eternity starts.
3. The new translations mean the time gap from Christ’s return to heaven and his return to earth will not be delayed any longer.

Let's look at these on the basis of Scripture.

The Proclamation of Prophetic Time

This interpretation is the most consistent with the rest of scripture. First, as pointed out above, the word "delay" cannot be used without grammatical difficulty in this context. Secondly, the word "time" in both the Old Testament and in the New Testament is frequently connecting to a prophetic time. The books of Daniel and Revelation are especially focused on time prophecies and the proclamation of times, like the 1260 years, the 2300 years, etc.

The End of Time when Eternity Starts

This proposition is somewhat ambiguous and may be taken in two ways.

To assume eternity has not yet begun would be to invalidate texts that place an eternity of time already in the past, such as Isaiah 57:15:

For thus saith the high and lofty One that inhabiteth eternity, whose name is Holy . . . (Isaiah 57:15, KJV)

If God inhabits eternity, then how would God exist pre-eternity?

But assuming, likely more correctly, that the focus here is on specifically the eternity future to be inherited by the saints at Christ's coming, this proposed interpretation appears to state that time will not exist in that eternity future. This, however, makes no sense. Why would time stop in order for eternity to begin? What is "eternity" if it is not time?

The context of the prior texts and the very next one may be helpful:

• And when the seven thunders had uttered their voices, I was about to write: and I heard a voice from heaven saying unto me, Seal up those things which the seven thunders uttered, and write them not. (Revelation 10:4, KJV)
• And the angel which I saw stand upon the sea and upon the earth lifted up his hand to heaven, (Revelation 10:5, KJV)
• ...
• But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets. (Revelation 10:7, KJV)

At the point that the seventh angel begins to sound, . . . It doesn't say the seventh-angel has finished his work. It does imply that time existed prior, as there must have been six angels before the seventh which have perhaps done their work already. The "servants the prophets" calls to mind the language of Amos 2:7.

Surely the Lord GOD will do nothing, but he revealeth his secret unto his servants the prophets. (Amos 3:7, KJV)

In the past, God would often tell His people when something would happen, revealing to us the "secret" of the future. These times that were foretold were prophetic times.

The End of the Delay of Christ's Return

While the Bible speaks of people saying "my Lord delayeth his coming" there is no indication given that it is either true or that saying so is wise.

But and if that servant say in his heart, My lord delayeth his coming; and shall begin to beat the menservants and maidens, and to eat and drink, and to be drunken; The lord of that servant will come in a day when he looketh not for him, and at an hour when he is not aware, and will cut him in sunder, and will appoint him his portion with the unbelievers. (Luke 12:45-46, KJV)

If those who say their Lord's coming is delayed are counted as "unbelievers," it does not speak well for anyone who would attempt to say such a thing! Obviously, the Bible itself cannot contradict its own teachings and still be the word of God.

For yet a little while, and he that shall come will come, and will not tarry. (Hebrews 10:37, KJV)

The Bible's teaching is clear: Jesus will not tarry; he will not delay his coming. We may be tempted to think that his coming is delayed, but we should never say that it is.

Hebrews 10:37, therefore, should settle the question. There is no delay. Revelation 10:6 cannot be speaking of a delay in Christ's second advent and yet be consistent with the rest of the scriptures.

Answer 2

This is one of many ambiguities where your theology will guide the proper translation.

Chronos can mean both time itself and a period of time, or a time delay, depending on context.

an indefinite period of time during which some activity or event takes place, time, period of time

Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., p. 1092). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.

Both readings are valid, with modern readings influenced by post-Enlightenment thinking as well as notions of classical physics (in which time is separate and independent of other physical quantities) and thus they tend to not want to think of "end of time itself" as the proper reading of Rev 10, given that it occurs in the middle of Revelation and they prefer to treat time linearly in texts and as something unaffected by happenings in the world. As Nigel pointed out, this is not resolved by the absence of a definite article. One can speak of a located delay or an unlocated delay, just as one can speak of a located time or an unlocated time. E.g. if one was speaking of time itself earlier, then one might want to locate it later. Same for a delay. So it is on purely philosophical grounds, rather than grammatical grounds, that moderns reject the traditional translation. Here is the NICOT explanation:

Most early writers interpret this statement as a metaphysical assertion about the end of time as a sequence of events. The translation in the AV (“There shall be time no longer”) reflects this interpretation.28 This is not the meaning of “time” (Gk. chronos) here. It would hardly be necessary for an angel to put himself under oath just to make an assertion about the timeless nature of eternity.

NICOT also includes the following footnote:

Cullmann (Christ and Time, 49) takes χρόνος in Rev 10:6 not as a reference to an era of timelessness, but in the sense of delay. The contrast between time and eternity is a philosophical notion and has no support in biblical theology.

Mounce, R. H. (1997). The Book of Revelation (p. 205). Grand Rapids, MI: Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Co.

There are many such examples that account for differences between the KJV and modern translations that have nothing to do with textual differences or improved knowledge of Greek grammar. For example, whether Gal 2.20 refers to "faith of Christ" or "faith in Christ", again a philosophical difference not resolved by the grammar. And these differences tend to fall quite uniformly on one side or the other, which is a good reason to keep reading the KJV/Wycliffe and other pre-modern translations in order to get a pre-enlightenment, historical, traditional perspective on scripture even though in some (rare) cases there are textual, not interpretative issues at play.

Thus if you are looking for a grammatical solution you are going to be dissapointed as this is a problem of interpretation, regardless of how much the questionner wants a grammatical solution.

Many (if not most) early believers did believe that the second coming will occur at the "end of time" and did not read this phrase as referring to a time delay, as can be seen from the commentaries on Revelation that I will cite later in this answer. Thus the argument of the NICOT footnote about "time itself" having no place in biblical theology is at odds with the view of early Christians such as Justin Martyr, Eusebius, and Augustine, as well as with medieval Rabbis. This is a recurring problem for 20th Century commentaries as well as 20th C translations -- that is, modern theological academia -- as they are contradicting how the earliest Christians read these texts in the name of fidelity to those same Christians - in Revelation, in Galations, and many other places where ambiguous grammatical constructions are intepreted with a uniformly different meaning than what is given given in pre-modern Bible translations such as the Wycliffe or KJV. These differences for the most part have nothing to do with the greek source texts but are the result of reading the texts with a modernist eye.

Moreover today, there are certainly present-day believers that also hold to this view, taking "end times" to mean "the end of time", and the "last days" as literally the last days, and "end of time" in Jude 18 as literally the end of time. Indeed, if we believe that the heavens and earth will pass away and there will be a new heaven and new earth (e.g. a new universe), then it makes sense that space-time will be done away with and replaced with something else (a new spacetime? something completely different?), as modern man understands time itself be a physical characteristic of creation, just like space, and thus it too will be done away with if the old creation passes away, just as time was created as part of the old creation in Genesis (a view promulgated first by Augustine and then by medieval jewish rabbis such as Nachmanides). But the same modern man, when given the job of translators, insists that early Christians were primitive people who could not possible be thinking in terms of the difference between time and eternity, or that time would come to an end, nor do they accept any kind of sensus plenior with respect to scripture, and for these types of reasons they consistently choose the opposite interpretations of ambiguous constructions than what is chosen by pre-modern translations.

Indeed if you do not believe that the second coming is at the end of time, you will need to explain the language of "last day", "last days", "end time" used in many places as referring to just time delays, which begins to stretch credulity. Then you will also need to think of how the heavens and earth can pass away with time continuing on unaffected.

Early Christian commentaries on Rev 10.6

These are included to argue against the NICOT claim that the nature of time itself versus eternity has no place in Biblical Theology as the justification for only interpreting this as a delay and not a metaphysical change in time:

• Andrew of Caesarea (6th C):

God swears by himself, since there is none greater than he. But the angels, being creatures, swear by the Creator, for due to our untrustworthiness, they are the guarantors of what is said by them. They swear either that in the coming age there will no longer be time which is measured by the sun, since eternal life is transcendent to temporal measure, or they swear that there is not much time after the six voices of the angel before the prophecies are fulfilled. COMMENTARY ON THE APOCALYPSE 10:5–6.

Weinrich, W. C. (Ed.). (2005). Revelation (pp. 149–150). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Eusebius:

Towards the close of the first vision (chap. 10:6.) it is sworn that “there shall be time no longer:” in other words, nothing now remains of the predictions of Holy Writ, which shall require time for its fulfilment: and this is only an echo of Daniel (chap. 12:7.) where an oath to the same effect is sworn, declaring that, when the power of the holy people shall be scattered (abroad) “all these things shall be finished.” So also here (Rev. ib. ver. 7.), when the seventh Angel shall begin to sound (his trumpet) “the mystery of God shall be finished.”

Eusebius of Caesarea. (1843). Eusebius Bishop of Cæsarea on the Theophanīa or Divine Manifestation of Our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. (S. Lee, Trans.) (p. cxlviii). Cambridge; London: Cambridge University Press; Duncan and Malcolm.

In like manner (Rev. 10:6, 7) an oath is sworn, “that there shall be time no longer,” but that now, the mystery of God is finished, as He hath declared to his servants the prophets: when, again (Rev. 11:15) “The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; who shall reign for ever and ever.”

Eusebius of Caesarea. (1843). Eusebius Bishop of Cæsarea on the Theophanīa or Divine Manifestation of Our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. (S. Lee, Trans.) (p. cxl). Cambridge; London: Cambridge University Press; Duncan and Malcolm.

Early Christian commentaries on Revelation

These are included to refute the NICOT interpretation that "end times" refers to "delay" as opposed to a change in the nature of time itself.

• Victorinus of Petovium (3rd C):

[This passage] signifies the Holy Spirit who through two prophets proclaims that the great wrath of plagues is imminent. This occurs so that, although it is the end of time, someone might in some manner still be saved. COMMENTARY ON THE APOCALYPSE 8:13.

Weinrich, W. C. (Ed.). (2005). Revelation (p. 130). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

also

Concerning this [first] resurrection he says, “I saw the Lamb standing and with him—that is, standing with Christ—144,000.” He is speaking of those from the Jews who at the end of time will come to faith through the preaching of Elijah, and of these the Spirit testifies that they are virgin not only in body but also in language. COMMENTARY ON THE APOCALYPSE 20:1.

Weinrich, W. C. (Ed.). (2005). Revelation (p. 214). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Andrew of Caesarea (6th C):

These are the ones of whom David spoke: “I shall number them, and they will be more than the sand.” Namely, these are those who long ago struggled as martyrs for the sake of Christ and those from every tribe and tongue who will fight valiantly at the end of time. COMMENTARY ON THE APOCALYPSE 7:9–10.

Weinrich, W. C. (Ed.). (2005). Revelation (p. 111). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Tyconius (4th C):

For when he says that “he shall never go out of it,” he shows that at the end of time there will be a struggle. For it will happen that after unity there will be a final struggle in which there will be another separation. And wherever anyone will have been freed, he shall certainly not go out, and he shall remain in the house, not as a slave but as a son. And therefore God allowed those who were saved from the flood in the ark to go out, because until that time there was still time for returning from one’s sins. However, at the end of time it will not be allowed one any longer to come out, for whoever at that time will go out, will have not occasion for repentance. COMMENTARY ON THE APOCALYPSE 3:12.

Weinrich, W. C. (Ed.). (2005). Revelation (p. 47). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Apringius of Beja (6th C):

He says that he knows the work, the love, the faith, the service and the patience of his church. “And that your latter works exceed the first.” He indicates that at the end of time there will be a great number of saints, when, with the coming of the man of sin, the son of perdition, innumerable thousands of saints will be consecrated with their own blood. TRACTATE ON THE APOCALYPSE 2:19.

Weinrich, W. C. (Ed.). (2005). Revelation (pp. 34–35). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

Early Christian commentaries on the end of time

These are included to refute the notion that the philosophical view of time versus eternity had no place in Biblical theology as believed by early Christians.

• Augustine:

If we take the millennium and think of the end of that time as being the end of the world, we could say that it was the end of time in general, for a thousand years in God’s sight are like a single day. Because of this, anything that was done during the millennium could be spoken of as done at the end of time or on the last day. LETTERS 199.17.

Bray, G. (Ed.). (2000). James, 1-2 Peter, 1-3 John, Jude (p. 158). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Ignatius of Antioch (1st C):

THE COMING OF THE JUDGE. Christ died and rose again, and ascended into heaven to him who sent him, and sat down at his right hand, and will come at the end of time with his Father’s glory to judge the living and the dead.

Bray, G. (Ed.). (1998). Romans (Revised) (p. 56). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Oecumenius (6th C):

If someone asks why God created the world if all he intends to do is to destroy it, the answer is that the world will be renewed at the end of time.

Bray, G. (Ed.). (2000). James, 1-2 Peter, 1-3 John, Jude (p. 158). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Eusebius of Caesarea

For instance, Daniel the prophet, under the influence of the divine Spirit, seeing his kingdom at the end of time, was inspired thus to describe the divine vision in language fitted to human comprehension.… It is clear that these words can refer to no one else than to our Savior, the Word who was in the beginning with God, and who was called the Son of man because of his final appearance in the flesh.

Stevenson, K., & Gluerup, M. (Eds.). (2008). Ezekiel, Daniel (p. 237). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Ephrem the Syrian (4th C):

“For I know that my Redeemer lives and that at last he will be revealed upon the earth.” Here the blessed Job predicts the future manifestation of Emmanuel in the flesh at the end of time.

Simonetti, M., & Conti, M. (Eds.). (2006). Job (p. 105). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Ambrose (4th C):

In the pine cone nature seems to express an image of itself. It preserves its peculiar properties which it received from that divine and celestial command, and it repeats in the succession and order of the years its generation until the end of time is fulfilled. HEXAEMERON 3.16.68.

Louth, A., & Conti, M. (Eds.). (2001). Genesis 1–11 (p. 22). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Bede (7th C):

We cannot sin to the extent that we remain in Christ. John is speaking here about the vision and knowledge by which the righteous are able to enjoy God in this life, until they come to that perfect vision of him which will be revealed to them at the end of time. ON 1 JOHN.

Bray, G. (Ed.). (2000). James, 1-2 Peter, 1-3 John, Jude (p. 198). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Basil the Great (4th C):

We believe and confess that, rising on the third day from the dead, according to the Scriptures, he was seen by his holy disciples and others, as it is written. He ascended into heaven and sits on the right hand of the Father when he will come at the end of time to raise up all men and to render to each according to his works. CONCERNING FAITH.

Bray, G. L. (Ed.). (1999). 1–2 Corinthians (p. 151). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

• Pope Gregory the Great (6-7th C):

The malice remaining in the world deserves no better than to have those who could be of profit quickly taken away. It is to spare the elect the sight of worse evils that they are removed when the end of time approaches.… It is not our belief, however, that all the elect are taken out of this world, leaving only the perverse to continue on, for sinners would never turn to sorrow and repentance if there were no good examples to motivate them.

Elliott, M. W. (Ed.). (2007). Isaiah 40–66 (p. 198). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

Answer 3

Blessings.
Habukkuk 2:3 states the vision will not tarry ("though it tarry"). And is backed up in Hebrews 10:37: "For, 'In just a little while, HE WHO is coming will come and will not delay.'"
At first glance, Habukkuk seems contradictory: I mean, how can JEHOVAH say, 'if it tarries' and 'it won't tarry' at the same time?
Does this relate to the question at hand on Revelation 10:6? 100%. And this is what I'm getting from this:
GOD is just. HE is merciful. HE is also LOVE. There is no way in heaven or earth that HE would delay cutting off the wickedness by one split nanosecond. Period. That would be a breach in the solidity of HIS day and hour: why? Because HIS creatures are suffering. Because HIS Son is hanging from that cross every time a member of His body is persecuted; every time an innocent person is unjustly treated; every time an innocent animal is tortured or killed; every time a tree is felled for the sake of greed; every time natural disasters, sickness, death, mourning and pain happen. JEHOVAH created all things through HIS Son. All connected. If HE waited one moment longer than was necessary, would that not be unjust? We're talking GOD, here: Perfect. Holy. One moment's lateness would destroy all creation, because it would be an imperfection on HIS part, would create a flaw.
Jesus also said in Matthew 24 that 'if HE didn't cut the days short no flesh would be saved. But for the sake of HIS elect, HE will..." what? 'Cut the days short.' Doesn't sound like a delay, does it?
As well as, yes, if HIS timing were off in either direction, it would be flawed. Including cutting the days too short. And this is where it comes in: the reference to "tarrying," "the vision panting until the end":
Although we sometimes get angry at GOD and question why it's taking so long when there's so much suffering, it is JEHOVAH WHO is suffering more than anyone, even Jesus. Why? Picture having the power to not allow all this and being forced to allow it because of a higher loving principle? And because Satan hurled legalities at you as well, cynical accusations necessary to address and finish it all so that no issues ever come up again?
And so, to GOD, every moment in time from Lucifer's fall to the fall of man to Jesus on the cross to these end times today has been a delay. A delay of evil. That is how love is. And THE CREATOR is suffering most.
And there's more:
It can be said in a sense, because GOD has decided in HIS loving mercies to make absolutely sure that none of HIS sheep are lost (Parable of the wheat and the tares and waiting until the harvest), and because this involves time, that it's a waiting period. Out of moral principle this cannot truly be called a "delay" when it will save souls from being destroyed. Even so, it entails more time. Justly. Not by any flaw or unnecessary holding-up.
This would be the "chronos," the time. The tarrying. The waiting. When it's ended and is no longer, that's it. By the fraction of the nanosecond. It's over.

Answer 4

The oldest known codex is Codex Sinaiticus. Revelation 10:6 is now showing "that there shall be delay no longer". The reference to Time was removed. Why was Time added back to a later codex?

My answer:

Revelation 11:15 (KJV) And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever. Revelation: 7 (KJV) But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.

THEN

Revelation 10:6 (KJV) can’t be triggered. Until then we wait.

During Revelation 11:15 (KJV) These less noticed events are taking place seventh trumpet blast, the third woe and the two witnesses were given the power of all plagues on earth.

Answer 5

In Revelation 10:6 the Greek text has, "there should be time no longer." Yet modern translations say 'delay'. Is there warrant in the Greek for this?

The Greek word here translated "delay" is Kronos/Chronos which literally means "time." Some have thus felt that this declaration of the angel should be translated: "There will be no more time," as though time as we know it will end. But the word khro'nos is used without a definite article. So it does not mean time in general but, rather, "a time" or "a period of time." In other words, there will be no further period of time (or, delay) by Jehovah. A Greek verb derived from Khro'nos is used also at Hebrews 10:37, where Paul, quoting from Habakkuk 2:3,4, writes that "he who is coming...will not delay."...This paragraph was taken from p.157 of, "Revelation Its Grand Climax At Hand!" by the 'Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society', 1988 edition.'

In addition to the above, if you were to go to 'Biblehub Commentaries', Barnes, gives us a great narrative on the meaning of this khro'nos, as it pertains to our verse in question, which is too lengthy to reiterate here but is very much worth the read.

Strong's concordance '5550', in its explanation of meaning, talks about the 'usage' being more to do with "time, a particular time, season".

Answer 6

First, some interlinear translations at Rev 10:6 do have "there shall be no more delay". Of the several on my shelf - most had "delay", including this one >> https://biblehub.com/interlinear/revelation/10-6.htm

The matter in Rev 10:6 is how to translate the phrase, ὅτι χρόνος οὐκέτι ἔσται, and in particular, the word χρόνος (chronos). According to BDAG, this word has three basic meanings:

1. an indefinite period of time during which some activity or event takes place, time, period, eg, matt 25:19, John 5:6, Acts 18:20, Luke 8:27, Acts 8:11, 14:3, 27:9, etc.
2. a point of time consisting of an occasion for some event or activity, time, occasion, eg, Acts 7:17, 1 Peter 1:17, Matt 2:7, Luke 1:57, etc.
3. a period during which something is delayed, respite, delay, eg, Rev 2:21, 10:6.

For more details, see BDAG. Almost all modern versions agree with BDAG, including the NKJV.

Even if "chronos" is interpreted as "time" and the last phrase of Rev 10:6 is translated "time no longer", it would still imply "delay", largely on the basis of what the text is alluding to in Dan 12.

Rev 10:5-7 is a definite echo of Dan 12:7 whose context is the following:

• V4 - discussing the "time of the end"
• V6 - the question is asked "how long ..."
• V7 - contains a time prophecy of the time, times and half a time = 1260 days
• V9 - words are sealed until the time of the end
• V11 - contains another time prophecy of 1290 days
• V12 - contains another prophecy of 1335 days
• V13 - "You will rest, and will arise to your inheritance at the end of the days"

Thus, the OT reference and allusion of Rev 10:6 is completely absorbed with time prophecies about expiring time. The "little book" that had been unsealed that John eats appears to be (See >> Is the scroll/book revealed in Revelation 5:8-9 the same scroll/book that was sealed in Daniel 12:4, 9? ) the book of Daniel that was sealed. Thus, there are numerous references to Daniel.

This appears to be confirmed by Rev 10:7 where the angel says that the mystery of God is about to be fulfilled.

Answer 7

You asked about the translation of ‘chronos’, querying the difference, which you say …. “could account for clashing interpretations”. And then emphasis “I do not want interpretations.”….

Nevertheless …. you need to understand that interpretation is ‘a’ significant factor for translators in ultimately deciding the English word to substitute in place of the original. Because the ‘meaning’ of a verse needs to be reflected in choice of words. Before I continue this in this line, we do need to consider the textual background.

‘ou’ (no more) modifies the noun ‘*chronos’, (time), and then ‘eti’ ‘adjusts’ or modifies ‘ou’.. ‘eti’ - ‘of a thing which went on formerly, whereas now a different state of things exists or has begun to exist’.

Clearly the angel is announcing ‘something’ is going to change. Now here is where interpretation could influence ‘word’ choice. You pointed out that the (a) noted difference is that between older/earlier translations and more modern ones. The translations of the ‘earlier’ Bibles would have a foundation established around the time of the reformation. And these heavily influenced by the scholars of around that time. Calvin, Augustine, etc. And their view of ‘end times’.

Whereas more modern translations have been influenced by several other factors, example, they can/could consider the Septuagint to re-analyse the Old Testament translations used for the ‘earlier’ Bibles. We also have access to more documentation from the second temple period. And recently the Dead Sea Scrolls have not just given us segments of the Old Testament, but (arguably) more helpful are the commentaries found in the caves.

These ‘shed’ a slightly different ‘light’ on the End Times. One crucial example here are the commentaries found on ‘Ages’ (aka ‘times’). And using these as a foundation, the use of ‘delay’ can easily be seen to be (arguably) a better choice.

I won’t go into what these might be, because you only wanted to know why the difference. And I have outlined an argument as to the reason for the differences, and a reason to/for as you say, ”account for clashing interpretations”. The reason is that the viewpoint of the 16/17the century differs to that we ‘see’ today. And the reason for the ‘clash’ is some are founded in entrenched doctrines from the period of the early Bible translations, where as others have taken onboard the newer interpretations.

Answer 8

The meaning is the same. The new translations render it "there will be no longer delay" for a better clarity than "there will be no longer time/duration/waiting (left for this)". The phrase is "no longer time" chronos ouketi. The sentence means- it will soon happen. It can also be said, "there is no time left". It doesn't mean time will cease, which is very different. Lexicon Liddell Scott Jones on χρόνος:

3. Special phrases: acc., χρόνον for a while, for a long or short time, Od. 4.599 , 6.295 , Hdt. 1.175 , 7.223 , etc.; πολὺν χρόνον for a long time, Od. 11.161 ; δηρὸν χ. Il. 14.206 ; οὐκ ὀλίγον χ. 19.157 ; τοῦτον τὸν χ. Hdt. 1.75 ; ἐς τὸν αἰὲν χ. for ever, E. Or. 207 (lyr.); οὐ πολὺς χ. ἐξ οὗ . . Pl.R. 452c ; παλαιὸς ἀφ' οὗ χρόνος S. Aj. 600 (lyr.); ἦν χρόνος ἐν ᾧ . . , or ὅτε . . , Linusap. D.L. Prooem. 4, Critias 25.1 D. ; ἕνα χ. once for all, Il. 15.511 . gen., χρόνου περιιόντος as time came round, Hdt. 4.155 ; so χ. ἐπιγενομένου, διεξελθόντος, προβαίνοντος, Id. 1.28 , 2.52 , 3.53 ; χρόνου γενομένου after a time, D.S. 20.109 ; ὀλίγου χρόνου in a short time, Hdt. 3.134 ; πολλοῦ . . οὐχ ἑόρακά πω χρόνου Ar. Pl. 98 ; οὐ μακροῦ χ., τοῦ λοιποῦ χ., S. El. 478 (lyr.), 817 ; βαιοῦ κοὐχὶ μυρίου χ. Id. OC 397 ; ποίου χρόνου; A. Ag. 278 ; πόσου χ.; after how long? Ar. Ach. 83 . dat., χρόνῳ in process of time, Xenoph. 18 , Hdt. 1.80 , 176 , al.: freq. in Trag., as A. Ag. 126 , 463 , Ch. 650 (all lyr.); also χρόνῳ κοτέ Hdt. 9.62 ; τῷ χ. ποτέ Ar. Nu. 865 ; χρόνῳ, χρόνοις ὕστερον, long after, Th. 1.8 , Lys. 3.39 ; οὐ χρόνῳ immediately, Ps.Democr.Alch.p.49B.: also c. Art., τῷ χ. Ar. Nu. 66 , 1242 . ὁ ἄλλος χ., in Att. , of past time, D. 20.16 , ὁ λοιπὸς χ., of future, v. λοιπός 3; so χ. ἐφέρπων, ἐπαντέλλων, μέλλων, Pi. O. 6.97 , 8.28 , 10(11).7 ; also κατὰ χ. ἱκνούμενον or κατὰ χ. [τὸν] ἱ. at a later (or the fitting) time, Ant.Lib. 27.4 (cf. ἱκνέομαι 111.2 ).
4. with Preps.: — ἀνὰ χρόνον in course of time, after a time, Hdt. 1.173 , 2.151 , 5.27 , al. ἀφ' οὗ χρόνου from such time as . . , X. Cyr. 1.2.13 . διὰ χρόνου after a time, after an interval, S. Ph. 758 , Ar. Lys. 904 , Pl. 1055 , Th. 2.94 ; διὰ χρόνου πολλοῦ Hdt. 3.27 ; διὰ π. χ. Ar. V. 1476 ; διὰ μακρῶν χρόνων Pl. Ti. 22d : but χρόνος . . διὰ χρόνου προὔβαινέ μοι means one space of time after another, day after day, S. Ph. 285 . ἐκ πολλοῦ τευ χ. a long time since, long ago, Hdt. 2.58 . ἐν χρόνῳ, like χρόνῳ , in course of time, at length, A. Eu. 1000 (lyr.); for a long time, Pl. Phdr. 278d ; ἐν πολλῷ χρόνῳ ib. 228a ; ἐν χρόνοισι perh. formerly, [ Emp. ] Sphaer. 108 (leg. Κάρπιμος ). ἐντὸς χρόνου within a certain time, Hdt. 8.104 . ἐπὶ χρόνον for a time, for a while, Il. 2.299 , Od. 14.193 , Hdt. 1.116 ; πολλὸν ἐπὶ χ. Od. 12.407 ; χρόνον ἐπὶ μακρόν Hdt. 1.81 ; παυρίδιον or παῦρον ἐπὶ χ., Hes. Op. 133 , 326 . ἐς χρόνον hereafter, Hdt. 3.72 , 9.89 . i μετὰ χρόνον after a time, Id. 2.52 , etc.; μέχρι τοῦ αὐτοῦ χ. up to the same time, Th. 1.13 . πρὸ τοῦ καθήκοντος χ. Aeschin. 3.126 ; so τοῦ χρόνου πρόσθεν S. Ant. 461 . σὺν (ξὺν) χρόνῳ, like χρόνῳ or διὰ χρόνου, A. Ag. 1378 , Eu. 555 (lyr.). ὑπὸ χρόνου by lapse of time, Th. 1.21 : but ὑπὸ αὐτὸν τὸν χ. about the same time, Hdt. 7.165 , cf. Th. 1.100 (pl.). II lifetime, age, ὁ μακρὸς ἀνθρώπων χρόνος S. Ph. 306 ; χρόνῳ παλαιοί Id. OC 112 ; χρόνῳ μείων ib. 374 ; τοσόσδε τῷ χ. so far gone in years, Pl. Ax. 365b ; χρόνῳ βραδύς S. OC 875 . III season or portion of the year, περιγράψαι τοῦ ἔτους χρόνον X. Mem. 1.4.12 . delay, οὐδ' ἐποίησαν (fort. ἐνεποίησαν ) χ. οὐδένα D. 19.163 ; χρόνον δ' αἱ νύκτες ἔχοντι linger, Theoc. 21.25 ; χρόνους ἐμποιεῖν to interpose delays, D. 23.93 . Gramm., 1 tense of a verb, D.H. Th. 24 , A.D. Adv. 123.17 , D.T. 638.3 .

Answer 9

Hopefully, you will find this of some interest/value.

mâshak, maw-shak'; a primitive root; to draw, used in a great variety of applications (including to sow, to sound, to prolong, to develop, to march, to remove, to delay, to be tall, etc.):—draw (along, out), continue, defer, extend, forbear, × give, handle, make (pro-, sound) long, × sow, scatter, stretch out.

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Note: so lets look at delay below

Old Testament (Hebrew) for "delay" H309 אָחַר 'āḥar tarry, defer, slack, continue, delay, hinder, stayed there, sit up late

G5549 χρονίζω chronizō delay, tarry, tarry so long

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Note: so let's now look at prolonged again, and its relationship to Eze 12:28.

Therefore say unto them, Thus saith the Lord GOD; There shall none of my words be prolonged [H4900] any more, but the word which I have spoken shall be done, saith the Lord GOD.

sa 13:22 And the wild beasts of the islands shall cry in their desolate houses, and dragons in their pleasant palaces: and her time is near to come, and her days shall not be prolonged [H4900].

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Note: prolong, tarry, delay could have been used based on H4900.

ο τάρρι δεν είναι πια. tarry no longer

ο χρόνος δεν είναι πλέον. time no longer

Answer 10

Revelation 10:6 the Greek text is, “there should be time no longer.” is correct and here is why. In Revelation 10:7 the angel explains when history will end. It will be the day that the seventh angel sounds his trumpet (11:15-19). The interlude will not last forever. When the seventh trumpet sound's God's mystery will be completed.

This event triggers --Revelation 10:6 will be delayed until a future event Revelation 11:15-19 is executed. This has the same effect of changing the script to reflect both Delay and “there should be time no longer.” By default we are in a state of Delay until Revelation 11:15-19 is completed.

Reference page 368 of the Revelation by Thomas R. Schreiner.

Answer 11

Revelation 10:6 has two real states. It's currently delayed until Revelation 11:15-19 then “there should be time no longer.” will be executed. When God decides to terminate history, there will be no delay in doing so. The Greek text is correct in this case.

We are told in Revelation 10:6 what will happen, then we are told in Revelation 10:7 how it will be performed. Programmers will see this as an event driven programing.

Please reference page 1117 of "Commentary on the New Testament Use of the Old Testament", Then read https://www.endtimeissues.com/articles/newsletters---html/violence---a-sign-Part2.

Proof: John uses 'chiasm', or chiastic pattern structures or phrase patterns in reverse order

The seventh angel from Rev. 11:15 must be sounded before Rev. 10:7 can occur.

Revelation 11:15 (KJV) And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.

Revelation 10:7 (KJV) But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the "mystery of God should be finished", as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.

What I would like to know now is how far back does the span of control for Revelation 11:15-19 go? Revelation 10:6 is one but what others are setting there waiting for Revelation 11:15-19 to occur.

Answer 12

Because modern translators are sick in their soul and infected by the idolatry of time and temporality, which sickness has its deep roots in the history of the Western philosophy, politics and culture!

Just read St Augustine, in whose writings the sense and smell of Eternity is so prominent! So lovingly and nostalgically he sighs from depth of his heart for the timeless beauty of the divine realm: Sero te amavi, pulchritudo, tam antiqua et tam nova, sero te amavi!, or as the pride of the Irish, W.B. Yeats nicely paraphrases it: “Beauty grown sad with its eternity”… and then read Hegel, or Oscar Culman with his famous, or rather ill-famous “Christ and Time”, and you will see fully the degradation, degeneration and sickness of Western mindset, abolition of Eternity and swallowing of everything by time.

“Modern translations”…to hell with those sick modern mistranslations!

Answer 13

You ask "why", and you invite opinions. That will be difficult, if impossible to answer. You ask "when" and that will also be difficult, if impossible to answer because human records and archives are incomplete, or at times have been deliberately purged or altered. Those two questions may be the wrong way to look at this particular matter because most of those translations on this verse are wrong, and the reason they are wrong is that the translators were influenced by their own beliefs.

As in several other instances the English translations are faulty because an opinion guided the translator who read into the text (eisegesis) what he/they thought or believed or wanted it to mean. That is the reason I have stated at other times and places that the English translations have to be bounced against each other to determine the best meaning.

We are not allowed to believe whatever we want to believe. We are commanded to believe in God (Matt. 22:37 from Deu. 6:5; John 14:1) as His word is truth (Psa. 25:5, 10; 31:5; 86:11. etc). We are not allowed to interpret His word, as only God interprets (Gen. 40:8; 41:16; Dan. 2:20-28, 2 Pet. 1:20). That means that only God's word can interpret, or reveal His meaning. One of the rules of hermeneutics is that God's scriptures interpret God's scriptures.

Another point to clarify is that there is nothing NEW in the New Testament. It has been repeated time after time that the OT is the NT concealed, and the NT is the OT revealed. ALL of the NT is from the OT prophesies, even all of Revelation.

Remember what the Bereans were doing? They were checking Paul against the scriptures (Acts 17:11). Which scriptures did they have as their test? The Hebrew TNK, what we call the OT. So, Paul, a man filled with the Holy Spirit since his conversion, was being vetted against the OT scriptures to see if he was speaking the truth.

You may have heard some people say or preach that as we are now under the gospel of Christ, under the new covenant of His everlasting kingdom, then we do not need the OT any longer. This is an absolutely false statement. The OT was our teacher to bring us to a knowledge of God and of His plan of salvation through His son, Yeshua (Jesus). If we do not know the OT, if we do not know the idioms, metaphors, terminology, and Hebraic phrases used throughout the OT we cannot see them and recognize them when they are repeated in the NT.

The books are all united, and work all together. No verse can be lifted away from the context of the surrounding scriptures, no more than any book of the NT can be lifted away from the entirety of God's word. So, taking one word out to look at it as a singular meaning to stand on its own is not proper. Context matters.

All of Rev. chap. 10 was looking back at Dan. 12. The Gr. word "chronos" is correctly translated as "time" in Young's Literal Translation, but the rest of the verse shows something different.

"1 And I saw another strong messenger coming down out of the heaven, arrayed with a cloud, and a rainbow upon the head, and his face as the sun, and his feet as pillars of fire,

2 and he had in his hand a little scroll opened, and he did place his right foot upon the sea, and the left upon the land, ....

5 And the messenger whom I saw standing upon the sea, and upon the land, did lift up his hand to the heaven,

"and did swear in Him who doth live to the ages of the ages, who did create the heaven and the things in it, and the land and the things in it, and the sea and the things in it -- that time shall not be yet," (Rev. 10:1-2, 5-6, YLT)

From Dan. 12:7-9,

"7 And I hear the one clothed in linen, who [is] upon the waters of the flood, and he doth lift up his right hand and his left unto the heavens, and sweareth by Him who is living to the age, that, `After a time, times, and a half, and at the completion of the scattering of the power of the holy people, finished are all these.'

8 And I have heard, and I do not understand, and I say, `O my lord, what [is] the latter end of these?'

9 And he saith, `Go, Daniel; for hidden and sealed [are] the things till the time of the end;" (YLT)

First, Rev. 10:1 identified the "strong messenger" or angel who was standing upon the sea and upon the land as Christ. It is the same language as Rev. 1:13-15, and as Ezek. 1:26-27. The symbolic imagery of standing upon the sea and the land meant He had dominion over both the gentile nations (the sea) and the land of Israel, the promised land, also called the "earth."

And, the text at Rev. 10:6 says in the past tense "did swear". He swore the time was not yet. When did He say that? He said it originally to Daniel, in Dan. 12:7-9 that the scroll or book would be sealed until the time of the end.

So, vs. 6 was recalling the original statement to Daniel. It was not a new statement given to John. He was not swearing it again in Revelation. It was a flash back for John's benefit to remember when the scroll of the prophesy was originally sealed. It was not yet time to unseal the book in Daniel's day, but it was time to unseal it in the 1st century AD when the vision was given to John as the Lamb slain ascended to the Father and was given the scroll to open in Rev. 5:6-7.

The translations that say "delay" are in error. The translations that say " that time should be no longer" or "time is no more" are also in error.

Answer 14

Biblical time to Gregorian, One Biblical Week is 7 Years. If Daniel’s Seventieth Week (1 week) equals 2,520 days. One hour would be 1/168 of a week or .0059523 of a week, which is 15 days.

Biblical to Gregorian conversion

1 week X 7 days X 24 hours = 168 hours one hour 1 week = 7 years one hour/168 hours = 0.005952380952381 of a week 7 years X 360 Days = 2520 Days for 7 Biblical Years 2520 days X o.005952380952381= 15 days

one half-hour Biblical X 15 Days per Gregorian hour = 7.5 Gregorian Days one Biblical hour X 2 hours x 15 Days per Gregorian hour = 30 Gregorian Days

So what does this mean if I'm right, one hour in heaven is 360 hours on earth. If correct, then time is being controlled now.

It follows that a "delay in time" is very possible for God.

Answer 15

It's not the phrase that tells me the true meaning, but the answer to why the commandment in Revelation 10:6 (KJV). The answer is the mystery in Revelation 11:15 (KJV). Ezekiel 12:25 (KJV) and of course, Jesus is the Lord Revelation 11:15 (KJV). The delay is of course the right answer and the reason for the angel's response.

Revelation 10:6 KJV

And sware by him that liveth for ever and ever, who created heaven, and the things that therein are, and the earth, and the things that therein are, and the sea, and the things which are therein, that there should be time no longer:

Ezekiel 12:25 KJV

Son of man, what is that proverb that ye have in the land of Israel, saying, The days are prolonged, and every vision faileth?

Ezekiel 12:25 KJV

For I am the Lord: I will speak, and the word that I shall speak shall come to pass; it shall be no more prolonged: for in your days, O rebellious house, will I say the word, and will perform it, saith the Lord God.