Does the Bible permit two wives?

Question

Does the Bible permits marrying two wives as stated in Deut. 21:15?

If a man has two wives and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons but the firsborn is the son of the wife he does not love. (NIV)

Answer 1

Yes, the Bible permitted multiple wives--but also teaches against this. In special circumstances, it might have been a requirement to marry an additional wife. (This is a touchy topic: Before judging this answer, please consider the evidence.)

God's Original Plan

First, God made Adam and Eve--one husband plus one wife. This shows what God's plan was originally, and what the ideal is still today. In fact, it was so strange, at first, to have a polygamous relationship, that the first case (eight generations after Adam) gets special mention in the scriptures.

Deviation from the Plan

And Lamech took unto him two wives: the name of the one was Adah, and the name of the other Zillah. (Genesis 4:19, KJV)

But, despite this being against God's plan, no specific commandment was given against this, either at that time, or afterward.

The Patriarchs

God made His covenant with the patriarchs Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob--two of whom had multiple wives. Never once did God address this with them specifically, but we have some interesting events with Abraham that can provide some perspective.

God Does Not Call Hagar a Wife

First, when the pregnant Hagar ran away, because Sarai was harsh with her, God told her to go back.

And the angel of the LORD said unto her, Return to your mistress, and submit yourself under her hands. (Genesis 16:9, KJV)

But after Ishmael had been born and become a teenager, Isaac was born of Sarah, changing the scenario.

Wherefore she said unto Abraham, Cast out this bondwoman and her son: for the son of this bondwoman shall not be heir with my son, even with Isaac. ...

And God said unto Abraham, Let it not be grievous in your sight because of the lad, and because of your bondwoman; in all that Sarah has said unto you, listen unto her voice; for in Isaac shall your seed be called. (Genesis 21:10,12, KJV)

So God authorized sending Hagar away at this point, referring to Hagar not as Abraham's wife, but as his servant (bondwoman). But when we go back to the time when God told Hagar to return, we see that on that occasion also, Hagar was not to return as a wife to Abraham, but as a servant to Sarai, her "mistress."

God called Hagar a servant; but Sarai had called her a wife.

And Sarai Abram's wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife. (Genesis 16:3, KJV)

This desire of Sarai is the only place in the (KJV) Bible that refers to Hagar as a wife. Throughout the Bible, only Sarai/Sarah is Abram/Abraham's wife until she passes away and he remarries (to Keturah).

How, then, can we know the Bible allows plural wives?

If God seems to condone only one wife, what evidence exists that the Bible permits having more than one?

Consider the following texts:

If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. (Exodus 21:10, KJV)

This was God speaking, giving additional laws just after having given the Ten Commandments. Instead of saying that a man was not permitted to take another wife, the command to treat the first wife just the same as before is given.

And God gives the following message to David through the prophet Nathan.

And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things. (2 Samuel 12:8, KJV)

That word "wives" is plural in Hebrew, indicating that God accepts the credit for having blessed David with multiple wives.

Kings and Leaders Not to have Multiple Wives

This is a bit of an enigma, because God had given a specific command to kings, at such time as the people had established them, as follows:

Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold. (Deuteronomy 17:17, KJV)

Is God indicating a difference between a man multiplying wives to himself as compared to God giving him his wives? The comparison between these passages opens a can of worms which goes beyond the scope of this question, but it is worth noting that this command against multiplying wives to oneself is given to kings, not to everyone.

In the New Testament, the same concept--polygamy being prohibited for leaders--is also taught.

A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach; (1 Timothy 3:2, KJV)

Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well. (1 Timothy 3:12, KJV)

If any be blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly. For a bishop must be blameless, as the steward of God; not selfwilled, not soon angry, not given to wine, no striker, not given to filthy lucre; (Titus 1:6-7, KJV)

These commands are given to the elders of the church--the bishops and deacons. No similar command is given for everyone else.

It is appropriate to conclude that having one wife is the ideal. But it is also reasonable to understand that the Bible never forbids having more--at least, not to the common people.

Where Plural Wives May Have Been Required

There was one special case where plural wives may have been commanded.

If brethren dwell together, and one of them die, and have no child, the wife of the dead shall not marry without unto a stranger: her husband's brother shall go in unto her, and take her to him to wife, and perform the duty of an husband's brother unto her. (Deuteronomy 25:5, KJV)

Saying, Master, Moses said, If a man die, having no children, his brother shall marry his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother. (Matthew 22:24, KJV)

There is no indication given in this statute that the brother must first have been single. If he were already married, no exemption is given for his case. In other words, he would be legally obligated to marry the widow of his brother. Naturally, this would not have been an agreeable obligation in most cases. This is hardly the same as choosing some attractive "minor wife" for oneself. It was not a command given with the intention of promoting polygamy--it had everything to do with preserving family relationships and property.

Answer 2

Some Pharisees confronted Jesus on the issue of divorce in Mark 10:

4They said, “Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce and send her away.”

5“It was because your hearts were hard that Moses wrote you this law,” Jesus replied. 6“But at the beginning of creation God ‘made them male and female.’ 7‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, 8and the two will become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two, but one flesh. 9Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”

Moses permitted divorce before their hearts were hard. Similar logic can be applied to multiple wives. However, according to Jesus, the two will become one flesh, not the three will become one flesh. So God's original marriage institutional idea was one man one woman.

When God restarted the earth by the flood, it followed the pattern of one man one woman. Genesis 7:

13 On that very day Noah entered the ark, along with his sons Shem, Ham, and Japheth, and his wife, and the three wives of his sons

Did Moses permit two wives?

Yes because of the hardness of hearts of the Israelites but it was not so by design at the beginning.