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Daniel 2:46 Then the king Nebuchadnezzar fell upon his face, and worshipped Daniel, and commanded that they should offer an oblation and sweet odours unto him. KJB.

Why did Daniel not correct the king's worship, why did he not refuse the peoples offering?

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  • The following verse seems to answer the question.
    – Lucian
    Aug 3 at 19:38
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Then the king Nebuchadnezzar fell upon his face, and worshipped Daniel, and commanded that they should offer an oblation and sweet odours unto him. (Daniel 2:46, KJV)

The translation is inaccurate, unfortunately. The Hebrew does not actually say the king worshipped Daniel. It says the king worshipped in front of or before Daniel. Obviously, that can be taken to mean that he worshipped Daniel--as some translations have rendered it; but that is hardly the only way it can be taken, and, in any case, that is not the way it is worded.

The king was intelligent. He knew that the wisdom he had been given through Daniel was of no mortal origin. At threat of death to themselves and their families, none of the scholars or counselors of the king had been able to tell him what he had dreamed. And how could they? As they had told the king, "it is a rare thing that the king requireth, and there is none other that can shew it before the king, except the gods, whose dwelling is not with flesh" (vs. 11).

The next verse tells us Whom Nebuchadnezzar was really worshipping.

The king answered unto Daniel, and said, Of a truth it is, that your God is a God of gods, and a Lord of kings, and a revealer of secrets, seeing thou couldest reveal this secret. (Daniel 2:47, KJV)

In awe, Nebuchadnezzar had fallen prostrate at Daniel's feet and humbly worshipped. Daniel must have recognized the true object of this worship, and knew that it was not himself. The king's words confirm this. He was worshipping Daniel's God.

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  • Good answer +1.
    – Dottard
    Aug 3 at 21:40
  • @Polyhat. "The translation is inaccurate, unfortunately." So the word " worship", at least in this verse, is inaccurately translated by the translators of KJB? Does that mean that the the word "worship" in the bible does not always mean sacred service due only to Almighty God? Aug 3 at 22:15
  • @AlexBalilo I don't see much problem with the translation of "worship." In Bible times, when someone prostrated themselves on the ground in fear or reverence, it was worship. The problem is that the Hebrew does not force the conclusion that it was Daniel who was worshipped, as the English has done. To use another example from the Bible where the one worshiped differs from the place/position of worship, consider 2 Kings 5:18 where Naaman asks pardon for bowing in his master's temple--essentially admitting he will actually be worshiping the true God despite this.
    – Polyhat
    Aug 4 at 0:53
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Daniel 2:46 New International Version

Then King Nebuchadnezzar fell prostrate before Daniel and paid him honor and ordered that an offering and incense be presented to him.

סְגִ֑ד (sə·ḡiḏ)
Verb - Qal - Perfect - third person masculine singular
Strong's 5457: To prostrate oneself

In some instances, the word means "worship" but only in the idolatry sense, Isaiah 2:20

In that day people will throw away to the moles and bats their idols of silver and idols of gold, which they made to worship [H5457].

The word for worshipping the LORD is different, Genesis 24:26

Then the man bowed down and worshiped the LORD,

and worshiped
וַיִּשְׁתַּ֖חוּ (way·yiš·ta·ḥū)
Conjunctive waw | Verb - Hitpael - Consecutive imperfect - third person masculine singular
Strong's 7812: To depress, prostrate

Did Daniel receive (worship) that God reserves only for Himself?

No.

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