Do Bible verses such as (1 Corinthians 6:9, 10; compare Leviticus 20:13.) condemn homosexuality, or do these verses refer to pedophilia? There seems to be some controversy over the exact meaning. Is the Hebrew context clear or ambiguous concerning the meaning?
3
-
Hello John! There is a related question, which adresses well just these two passages. The word in 1. Cor. 6 is "arseno-koites", which means "male-bed", which implicates just that kind of homosexual activity that is implied in Leviticus. Apparently the Septuagint uses these "arsen" and "koite" words in explaining the commandment. hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/15490/44115– Joona NiemeläJul 13, 2021 at 22:50
-
Have you ever asked yourself why Christianity would condemn pedophilia in the first place ?– LucianJul 13, 2021 at 23:25
-
1Possible Duplicate . . . . . Does this answer your question? What did Paul mean by "Arsenokoitēs"? Was he condemning homosexual activity as we know it today?– Nigel JJul 14, 2021 at 3:48
Add a comment
|
1 Answer
These two verse (Lev 20:13 and 1 Cor 6:9, 10) are extremely controversial in some quarters of Christianity, especially some churches whose raison d'etre is congregations of gay, homosexual and lesbian adherents. So let us proceed methodically and clinically.
Words μαλακός, ἀρσενοκοίτης
The operative words in 1 Cor 6:9 with their respective meanings are as follows:
μαλακοὶ (malakoi) is the plural of μαλακός (malakos) which, according to BDB means:
pertaining to being passive in a same-sex relationship, effeminate, especially of catamites, or men and boys who are sodomized by other males in such a relationship
ἀρσενοκοῖται (arsenokoitai) is the plural of ἀρσενοκοίτης (arsenokoites) which, according to BDAG means:
a male who engages in sexual activity with a person of his own sex, pederast
Note that this word, ἀρσενοκοίτης (arsenokoites) is a compound word which literally means man-bed, ie, is a direct reference to sexual activity between men.
It appears that Paul uses this unique word to directly refer to Lev 20:13 in the LXX because it reads:
καὶ ὃς ἂν κοιμηθῇ μετὰ ἄρσενος κοίτην γυναικός, βδέλυγμα ἐποίησαν ἀμφότεροι· θανατούσθωσαν, ἔνοχοί εἰσιν = And whoever shall lie with a male as with a woman, they have both wrought abomination; let them die the death, they are guilty.
This well-reflects the underlying Hebrew making the intent quite clear - a condemnation of homosexual activity.
-
Good answer. +1 While the question did not directly address sodomy/Sodom, many people link that to the issue on account of Genesis 19. While homosexuality was certainly a part of that story, their sin is also connected with hedonism in general.– PolyhatJul 14, 2021 at 7:50