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John 2: 9, 10

Now when the headwaiter tasted the water which had become wine, and did not know where it came from (but the servants who had drawn the water knew), the headwaiter *called the groom, and *said to him, “Every man serves the good wine first, and when the guests are drunk, then he serves the poorer wine; but you have kept the good wine until now.”

Does Jesus condone drunkenness at the Cana wedding?

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This is a similar question: What did “the good wine” (τὸν καλὸν οἶνον) mean in John 2:10?

Basically good wine meant good tasting, not necessarily high alcohol content. Not so good wine was wine turning toward vinegar. The comments in the above link mention if the alcohol content in wine got too high, they watered it down; probably not good tasting. Thus, good tasting wine probably still has enough sugar content left to taste good. Their use of wine wasn't oriented toward getting drunk, but somewhat toward sanitation.

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Not drunkenness, of course, because drunkenness can lead to debauching and lust (Ephesians 5:18), but He not only condones but also blesses drinking of wine for such joyful occasions as celebration of marriage! He condones and invites to only eternal drunkenness by the new wine of His infinite love in His Kingdom, to the effect that no sober will be allowed in there (cf. Matthew 26:29).

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