(Psalm 33:6) LXX Duality to Logos?

Question

I've been chasing the concept of Logos around the text and was drawn into Psalm 33:6 where we have:

Psalm 33:6 (NRSV), By the word of the Lord the heavens were made, and all their host by the breath of his mouth.

In the Septuagint, "the word" is rendered as "τω λόγω" and from what I can read of the declension of the word logos, this is not singular or plural, but "dual" (Nominative or Accusative).

Clearly this could have relevance to understanding the prologue of John, but to just stick to this verse: what does it mean that the word of god is rendered in dual form here.

Wouldn't the LXX be appropriately translated: "the two words of God..."

Or is this just the dative case (without the markings below the omegas) rendering "τω λόγω" as "to/for the word of the lord.." Dative indicating the indirect object. The LXX seems to lack a preposition including the word "through/with" at the beginning of the verse in hebrew (e.g. בדבר)

Answer 1

Τῷ λόγῳ is masculine singular dative. In Koine, there is such a thing as instrumental Dative.

In Classical Greek, the dative case is used as the instrumental case. This can be seen in the sentence "..με κτείνει δόλῳ," or "..me ktenei dolôi" (Book IX, line 407 of the Odyssey), which means "he kills me with a bait". Here, "δόλῳ," the dative of "δόλος" ("dolos" – a bait) is used as the instrumental case (the means or instrument here is, obviously, the bait).

It is translated using such prepositions as through, by, with.

Here is another case

2 Corinthians 8:9 - ἵνα ὑμεῖς τῇ ἐκείνου πτωχείᾳ πλουτήσητε = that ye through his poverty might be rich. (here the noun is feminine in Dative singular).

Answer 2

Hebrew of Ps 33:6

First, the Hebrew text says: בִּדְבַ֣ר = "by the Word" = preposition + noun noun masculine singular construct

Greek LXX of Ps 33:6 (actually numbered Ps 32 in LXX).

The LXX text is τῷ λόγῳ = "by the Word" = article + noun both in singular dative case.

Thus, the Greek appears to be a faithful translation of the Hebrew text - both clearly in the singular. While the Hebrew has a dual number for nouns, Koine Greek has lost the dual which existed only in classical forms of the ancient Greek.

Further, all English versions also correctly render the translations of the Hebrew in the singular. The LXX translation here >> https://www.ellopos.net/elpenor/greek-texts/septuagint/chapter.asp?book=24&page=32 also correctly renders the text in the singular.

The OP's link is to the ancient Attic Greek which has different declensions from the Koine Greek of the LXX and NT.

Answer 3

I agree with fev and Dottard's answers. Here I provide an actual example from John to support their arguments.

John 2:22 English Standard Version

When therefore he was raised from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this, and they believed the Scripture and the word that Jesus had spoken.

the
τῷ (tō)
Article - Dative Masculine Singular
Strong's 3588: The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.

word
λόγῳ (logō)
Noun - Dative Masculine Singular
Strong's 3056: From lego; something said; by implication, a topic, also reasoning or motive; by extension, a computation; specially, the Divine Expression.

OP: The LXX seems to lack a preposition including the word "through/with" at the beginning of the verse in hebrew

Right. The preposition is implicit in the Koine dative.

Answer 4

Nobody has done it yet, so I will.

Herebelow I have put, side by side, in three columns, the text in Hebrew of Psalm 33:6 (HEB), followed by the (word for word) LXX Greek translation (32:6). In the 3rd column I have put a word for word English translation:

| HEB | LXX | ENG |
| === | ===| === |
| בִּדְבַ֣ר | τῷ λόγῳ | by the word |
| יְ֭הוָה | τοῦ κυρίου | of-the-Lord |
| שָׁמַ֣יִם| οἱ οὐρανοὶ | heavens |
| נַעֲשׂ֑וּ| ἐστερεώθησαν | were made|
| וּבְר֥וּחַ| καὶ τῷ πνεύματι| and by the breath|
| פִּ֝֗יו| τοῦ στόματος αὐτοῦ| of his mouth|
| כָּל־צְבָאָֽם| πᾶσα ἡ δύναμις αὐτῶν| all-the-host-of-them|

The highlighted words are דְבַ֣ר/λόγος/word and רוּחַ/πνεῦμα/breath-spirit.

Irenaeus, bishop of Lyons (+ c. 202 AD) took up this image of the Word/Logos/Dabar an of the Spirit/Pneuma/Ruwach as the two arms (or hands) of God over and over. Here is just an example:

And, since God is rational [logikos], therefore by (the) Word [Logos] He created the things that were made; and God is Spirit [Pneuma], and by (the) Spirit He adorned all things: as also the prophet says: By the word of the Lord were the heavens established, and by his spirit all their power.[Ps 33:6 (32:6 LXX)]" (Irenaeus, Demonstration of the Apostolic Preaching, §5)

Irenaeus doesn't mention it, but the image of the "arms" of God comes from Deuteronomy:

The eternal God is thy refuge, and underneath are the everlasting arms: and he shall thrust out the enemy from before thee; and shall say, Destroy them. (Deut 33:27)

Answer 5

Word is singular in Hebrew and all the translations. τῷ λόγῳ is dative singular showing agency which is understood because of the passive verb.

This verse is Hebrew poetry, and the two independent clauses are synonymous parallel. Thus, the second clause restates the first. His mouth (פִּ֝֗יו) is why בְר֥וּחַ translates breath rather than spirit. Thus, the emphasis is "and God said" during creation.

   By the word of the LORD the heavens were made, 
     by the breath of His mouth, all their host. 
        (Psalm 33:6, JPS Tanakh)

 בִּדְבַ֣ר יְ֭הוָה שָׁמַ֣יִם נַעֲשׂ֑וּ
   וּבְר֥וּחַ פִּ֝֗יו כָּל־צְבָאָֽם׃
      (Psalm 33:6, BHS)


 τῷ λόγῳ τοῦ κυρίου οἱ οὐρανοὶ ἐστερεώθησαν† 
      καὶ τῷ πνεύματι τοῦ στόματος αὐτοῦ πᾶσα ἡ δύναμις αὐτῶν,
           (Ps 32:6, LXX)

See What does “God said” mean in Gen. 1:3,6,9,11,14,20,24,26?

Maybe you're interested in this verse:

  So is the word that issues from My mouth: 
  It does not come back to Me unfulfilled, 
  But performs what I purpose, 
  Achieves what I sent it to do. 
     (Isaiah 55:11, JPS Tanakh)

 

Answer 6

The plurality could indicate creation aroused both by the Word from God's mouth and that Christ was present at creation. Ascending into God's immutable, timeless Spirit, after the glorification, would achieve this. Paul wrote "he is (present indicative tense) before all things." (Colossians 1:17)... meaning Paul believed he existed before all things when he wrote the letter. The Jewish view of "two aeons" or "to olams" allows for this concept.

But John quotes Philo in John 1:1-2 verbatim. Philo existed 40-60 years before John. He repeated a Jewish view of "the Word" as an image or manifestation of God in a lesser form to commune with humanity. This was based on Genesis 15:1 "the Word appeared to Abraham in a dream." The targums replace the Angel of the LORD, a theophany or manifestation of God, with "the Word"