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What is the “logos” in Hebrews 4:12?

I know this question has been asked here before but I dont understand. Would you help me?

In the original Greek the verse says:

Zon gar o logos tou theou kai energes kai tomoteros huper pasan machairan distomon kai diiknoumenos achri merismou psuches kai pneumatos, armon te kai muelon, kai kritikos enthumeseon kai ennoion kardias;

KJV: For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.

If one read the following verse 13,

“Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: but all things are naked and opened unto the eyes of him with whom we have to do”

  • it it is talking about “his sight”, and “of him”. Could it be that verse 12 is talking about the word of God (the spoken or written word) and verse 13 talking about Jesus as the incarnate Word? But why the shift? Or are both talking about Jesus as the Word of God? Jesus is called “the word of God in revelation 19:13 and in the original Greek the bible was written only in vessels so you cannot really tell when “the word of God” is referring to the person Jesus or God´s word?

What do you think?

I know that in Ephesians the word of God is described as the sword of the spirit. So when Hebrews is describing the word of God as sharper than a two-edged sword, maybe the word of God in Hebrew is the same as the word of God in Ephesians?

I also want to quote an answer on this question that seems good. But I really don´t understand the answer at the end of the answer, the marked text. Can you help me to see what he means that there is a nuance in Greek? Can anyone explain what he means and want to reformulate it to me (I'm not that good in English)?

"The Apostle Paul makes the first logical connection of Jesus as the "Word" through references to the Book of Deuteronomy.

Romans 10:5-9 (NASB) 5 For Moses writes that the man who practices the righteousness which is based on law shall live by that righteousness. 6 But the righteousness based on faith speaks as follows: “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’ (that is, to bring Christ down), 7 or ‘Who will descend into the abyss?’ (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead).” 8 But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart”—that is, the word of faith which we are preaching, 9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved;

Paul is quoting from Deuteronomy 30:11-14 (LXX coincides with MT), and therefore makes Jesus to be synonymous with the "Word of God" from heaven that (who) saves. So the "Word" is both the special revelation from Moses (Word of God) and the Person who descends from heaven and then ascends (Word of God). Later in Eph 4:8-10 Paul expounds on the particulars of the descending of Jesus from heaven from an allusion found in Psalm 68:18 (LXX coincides with MT). That is, Psalm 68:18 does not mention any descent; thus the correlation to Deuteronomy 30:11-14, which refers to the ascent of the "Word" to heaven.

Secondly, the Apostle John then takes the same concept and expounds that the Word of God from heaven became flesh. (The incarnation of the Word would be the "descent" to which Paul was alluding.)

John 1:1; 14 (NASB) 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. . . 14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

So, between the Apostle Paul and the Apostle John, we see the connection between the "Word" from heaven and the Person of Jesus, who descended to earth and was robed in flesh (and who of course then subsequently ascended to heaven). Of course the Law of Moses is the Word of God, but Paul also included the Person as the Word of God as just noted in Romans 10:5-9. Now the passage in question (Hebrews 4:12-13) plays on the word λόγος, which occurs twice in the passage. In other words, the first occurrence refers to Scripture, and the second occurrence refers to our response to Jesus Christ by faith.

Hebrews 4:12-13 (GNT) 12 Ζῶν γὰρ ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ ἐνεργὴς καὶ τομώτερος ὑπὲρ πᾶσαν μάχαιραν δίστομον καὶ διϊκνούμενος ἄχρι μερισμοῦ ψυχῆς καὶ πνεύματος, ἁρμῶν τε καὶ μυελῶν, καὶ κριτικὸς ἐνθυμήσεων καὶ ἐννοιῶν καρδίας: 13 καὶ οὐκ ἔστιν κτίσις ἀφανὴς ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ, πάντα δὲ γυμνὰ καὶ τετραχηλισμένα τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς αὐτοῦ, πρὸς ὃν ἡμῖν ὁ λόγος.

The literal translation of the last clause is:

"But everything is laid out bare and naked before the eyes of Him, to whom is our λόγος (account). In this regard, most modern translations state: "...before whom we have to do."

However, there is a nuance in Greek: that is, the λόγος (Scripture) not only cuts deep, but our λόγος (account) will depend on how we respond to Jesus Christ by faith. In other words, our relationship to the λόγος (incarnate Word) will be the determining factor in the day of judgment."

I don't understand why he means that the first logos is scripture. Why is that?

Before I have had this verse as a ground for my life because I've thought that the word of God in the bible is active in me when I meditate on it. But maybe the word of God is not life in itself but only testifies of Jesus?

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  • Asked and answered here hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/54402/…
    – steveowen
    Jun 24 at 9:43
  • I am really struggling to understand exactly what you are asking here.
    – Dottard
    Jun 24 at 11:15
  • Matilda, the long quotation within your question is, in its entirety, the Answer to this question, Is Jesus the λόγος in Hebrews 4:12? of 7 years ago. We should check with @Joseph, but believe that the phrase "the λόγος (Scripture)", is shorthand for: "the λόγος of God (that we find expressed in) Scripture". That very same λόγος of God got incarnated (σὰρξ ἐγένετο) in Jesus, the son of God. Jun 24 at 11:21
  • So its not really a difference between the Word of God and Jesus as the Word of God?
    – Matilda
    Jun 25 at 10:57
  • The difference is that the λόγος is an eternal power of God, which became incarnated (John 1:14) in Jesus. Hope this helps :) Jun 25 at 13:43

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