-3

Exegetical question, try to stick with the immediate context with exposition. Cross-referencing cannot directly explain or deal with the exegesis of a particular context.

[Romans 3:20-28 BSB] 20Therefore no one - will be justified in His sight - by works of the law. For the law merely brings awareness of sin. 21But now, apart from the law, the righteousness of God has been revealed, as attested by the Law and the Prophets. 22And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. - There is no distinction, 23for all have sinned and fall short of the glory - of God, 24and are justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus. 25God presented Him - as the atoning sacrifice through - faith in His - blood, in order to demonstrate His - righteousness, because in - - His forbearance - He had passed over the sins committed beforehand. 26He did this - to demonstrate - His righteousness at the present time, so as - - to be just and to justify the one who has faith in Jesus. 27Where, then, is - boasting? It is excluded. On what principle? On that of works? No, but on that of faith. 28For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the law.

G1432 δωρεάν dorean for the word "freely" means without cost, for nothing. This grace or gift is contrasted with the requirement of the law. Freely is a better translation than "gift". Is grace described as without the law of Moses or without the justice of God in this passage? What does Paul mean by justification freely by grace of God?

13
  • 2
    Your term 'false justification' is thoroughly confusing as it is not a term found in scripture. I think you need to remove that concept in order to achieve clarity in your question. – Nigel J Jun 15 at 14:57
  • 2
    I am not required to comment on whether I voted or not. If the question closes you will be able to see who voted for its closure. Votes may be retracted at any time prior to closure, so the vote present at the moment may change. I absolutely disagree that God is unjust. God justifies because that is the only possible response to someone who believes in the demonstration of God's righteousness. Such a person is right to believe in God's righteousness. And to those who do, he responds by justifying them. I think you have misunderstood justification by faith. The jargon has not helped. – Nigel J Jun 15 at 15:11
  • 2
    Well, yes, of course. God justifies the ungodly and the result of his justification is that they become godly. I don't see a problem in that. – Nigel J Jun 15 at 15:35
  • 2
    They are ungodly at the point of justification. Thereafter God sanctifies them by the presence (within them) of the Holy Spirit. This is reformed theology. I still think your question is unclear. But no further comment as the system is discouraging it. Regards. – Nigel J Jun 15 at 15:44
  • 3
    I’m voting to close this question because it's a 'Stump the Chumps' question - posing a premise the author refuses to accept whilst asking respondents to justify it - it is here with the intention of stirring debate rather than seeking a genuine answer. Per the Help Center, "If your motivation for asking the question is “I would like to participate in a discussion about ______”, then you should not be asking here." – Steve Taylor Jun 15 at 20:00
3

Romans 3:

21But now, apart from the law, the righteousness of God has been revealed, as attested by the Law and the Prophets. 22And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no distinction, 23for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus.

25 God presented Him as the atoning sacrifice through faith in His blood, in order to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance He had passed over the sins committed beforehand. 26He did this to demonstrate His righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and to justify the one who has faith in Jesus.

27 Where, then, is boasting? It is excluded. On what principle? On that of works? No, but on that of faith. 28For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the law.

29Is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too, 30since there is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through that same faith.

31Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Certainly not! Instead, we uphold the law.

Paul explained the concept of free justification with the word "faith" 8 times. Statistically, it is not advisable to detach justification from faith.

3

It is God that justifieth, Romans 8:33. None other can do so. For God alone is righteous. For he, alone, is God, Isaiah 45:24.

It is God who calls (sinners to repentance) and God who justifies them, Romans 8:30.

God is right because he is God. None other can be right, for he alone is God.

What and whom God is : is right. It is 'rightness'. Nothing else can be 'right'.

That which is in alignment, in agreement, in sympathy with God and with his purposes and with his desires : is right. And nothing else is 'right'.

That which agrees with his purpose in creation. That which is in alignment with his ultimate purpose in creating humanity, that is to say in alignment with the New Creation, in alignment with God's redemption, in agreement with his salvation . . . . is right.

Nothing else can be right.

The tree of the knowledge of good and evil is not the way for humanity to live. It is a way of death, Genesis 2:17.

God alone is righteous : humanity believeth.

And Abraham believed God . . and there was evaluated to him unto righteousness. Genesis 15:6, Galatians 3:6, Romans 4:9, Romans 4:22, James 2:23.

Within Abraham's faith God saw his own righteousness (God's righteousness) and seeing that within Abraham was the righteousness of God, God logically evaluated that to Abraham.

It was not Abraham's righteousness. It was God's own righteousness. But it was attributed to Abraham unto (εισ) righteousness.

αβρααμ επιστευσεν τω θεω και ελογισθη αυτω εις δικαιοσυνην (Galatians 3:6 TR undisputed).

Those who see in the declaration of the gospel that God has demonstrated his own righteousness at Golgotha, eradicating sins by the sufferings of his own Son, and eradicating sin itself by the death of Jesus of Nazareth, they who see (in the gospel, for the gospel is the power of God unto salvation, Romans 1:16, for therein is the righteousness of God revealed) they who see the righteousness of God demonstrated therein and do so believe in God (as did Abraham) then it is logical, it is sensible, it is absolutely right that God should justify such persons.

And he does justify them. He does do so freely. Without the works of the law, Romans 3:28.

They are justified from all things, Acts 13:39.

By the law, this was impossible, Galatians 3:21. For the law saith : he that doeth them (the commandments) shall live in them, Galatians 3:12. But the law is not of faith, Galatians 3:12, again.

Faith believes God. Abraham believed God. And God freely justifies them who believe in him, Romans 3:24.

It would not be right to do otherwise.

For none is right, but God.

And it is he, himself who is our righteousness, as it is written 'The Lord our righteousness' Jeremiah 23:6.

He justifies the ungodly, who believe in him. And, believing, they receive the Holy Spirit, who works within them to will and to do the pleasure of the Father, Philippians 2:13.

And thus are they sanctified.


They do not 'remain as sinners'. That is a completely wrong apprehension of the scripture. Nowhere are the justified expected still to be sinners. They are saints. They are the sanctified.

They also do no iniquity: they walk in his ways. Psalm 119:3.

He that is born of God doth not commit (or 'practice') sin, 1 John 3:9. They do not continue in iniquity. 'For his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God, 1 John 3:9 again.

For God (the Holy Spirit) is within them and they cannot sin. He will not suffer them to do so. He will bring them out of it with chastening, with ministration, with instruction. He will not leave them in it.

For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, 1 Thessalonians 4:3.

For the flesh lusteth against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh: and these are contrary the one to the other: so that ye cannot do the things that ye would. Galatians 5:17.

The natural and sinful inclinations of the justified are overcome by the inward dwelling of God, himself, in the Person of the Holy Spirit, Romans 8:1. And his presence leads them, influences them and keeps them from evil.

He restoreth my soul: he leadeth me in the paths of righteousness for his name's sake. Psalm 23:3.

And he leads them into all truth, John 16:13 . . . . such as the truth of justification by faith.


All references are to the KJV/TR.

0

"I find the law that when I want to do good, evil is present with me"

The following verse, quoted in the Question ...

But they are justified freely [δωρεὰν] by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus. (Rom 3:24 NET)

... may still be interpreted in the sense that Jesus' self-sacrifice provided the atonement for all sinners who have faith in him. From then on, though, they should obey (not the Law of Moses, but) Jesus' essential commandment, the Law of Love (see Mark 12:28-31)

But Paul's understanding is much more redical than that. Quoting from a Psalm ...

1How blessed is the one whose rebellious acts are forgiven, whose sin is pardoned! 2How blessed is the one whose wrongdoing the Lord does not punish, in whose spirit there is no deceit. (Ps 32:1-2 - emphasis added)

... he writes ...

7“Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven, and whose sins are covered; 8blessed is the one against whom the Lord will never count sin.” (Rom 4:7-8)

Is Paul's omission of "in whose spirit there is no deceit", from the end of his quotation of Ps 32:1-2 deliberate? Maybe ...

In Romans 7, Paul tries to say something good about the "law" (which he mentions 29 times!) but only manages come up with this, in the end:

So, I find the law that when I want to do good, evil is present with me. (Rom 7:21)

Conclusion

Martin Luther understood Paul correctly when he insisted (contrary to the Catholic understanding) that man is justified in his ineliminably sinful state, simul justus et peccator

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.