Most early literal translators chose Happy instead of Blessed in the beatitudes, Matthew 5. Even the earliest English versions used Eadige meaning Happy, and then in the 14th century, Wycliffe seems to have started the trend with Blessed. I am intrigued to know some translation analysis. Which is the more suitable word for Μακάριοι makarios Strong's #3107 makarios. Those writing "Happy" are the translations like Emphatic Diaglot (1864) Those literal translators must have solid reasons to go against the tide. Matthew 5:3
YLT(1862) 3 `Happy the poor in spirit—because theirs is the reign of the heavens.
JuliaSmith(1876) 3 Happy the poor in spirit: for their's is the kingdom of the heavens.
Rotherham(1872) 3 Happy, the destitute, in spirit; for, theirs, is the kingdom of the heavens;
WestSaxon990(i) 3 Eadige synt þa gastlican þearfan. forþam hyra ys heofena rice;
WestSaxon1175(i) 3 Eadige synde þa gastlice þearfan. forþan hyora is heofena riche.
Wycliffe(1382) 3 Blessed ben pore men in spirit, for the kyngdom of heuenes is herne.
STRONGS NT 3107: μακάριος
μακάριος, μακαρία, μακάριον (poetic μάκαρ) (from Pindar, Plato down), blessed, happy: joined to names of God, 1 Timothy 1:11; 1 Timothy 6:15 (cf. μακαρες Θεοί in Homer and Hesiod); ἐλπίς, Titus 2:13; as a predicate, Acts 20:35; 1 Peter 3:14; 1 Peter 4:14; ἡγοῦμαι τινα μακάριον, Acts 26:2; μακαραριος ἐν τίνι, James 1:25. In congratulations, the reason why one is to be pronounced blessed is expressed by a noun or by a participle taking the place of the subject, μακάριος ὁ etc. (Hebrew פְּ אַשְׁרֵי, Psalm 1:1; Deuteronomy 33:29, etc.) blessed the man, who etc. (Winer's Grammar, 551 (512f)): Matthew 5:3-11; Luke 6:20-22; John 20:29; Revelation 1:3; Revelation 16:15; Revelation 19:9; Revelation 20:6; Revelation 22:14; by the addition to the noun of a participle which takes the place of a predicate, Luke 1:45; Luke 10:23; Luke 11:27; Revelation 14:13; followed by ὅς with a finite verb, Matthew 11:6; Luke 7:23; Luke 14:15; Romans 4:7f; the subject noun intervening, Luke 12:37, 43; Luke 23:29; James 1:12; μακάριοι ... ὅτι, Matthew 13:16; Matthew 16:17; Luke 14:14; followed by ἐάν, John 13:17; 1 Corinthians 7:40. (See Schmidt, chapter 187, 7.)
BDAG "privileged recipient of divine favor" for makarios seems inconsistent when used for God. The context doesn't show any divine favor but the state of heart or mind, from favor or because of a reward.
On the other hand, (εὐλογέω) eulogeó is more suitable for praising, consecrating and saying praise, and thanks for the food. Eulogeo pertains more to blessing [Vine's dict.], praise, benediction, as a rewarding act to the one receiving. Jesus used makarios which pertains to the state of mind, not the blessing, praising in reward sense, being fortunate, as the verse 12 concludes "Rejoice (chario) and be exceedingly glad (aggalliao: to leap or jump for joy), because your reward is great in heaven." He is not saying they are fortunate, but happy but rather should be happy. The contrast is made with the sad state of spirit of the suffering, miserable, humble & downtrodden with happiness and cheerfulness because of their future reward in heaven. Also, he is not describing their state, this maybe the reason the literal ones remove the present tense verb are.
It may rather be "be happy". If you are insulted for the name of Christ, be happy; because the Spirit of glory and of God rests on you. (1Peter 4:14) SLT has "ye happy".
What is the defense given for Happy? If that's the right word, shouldn't we prefer this translation today? Did Wycliffe or others introduce "Bless" rendering, changing it to overlap with happiness? Bless seems to have evolved and included a secondary sense of happiness after Wycliffe. Some say "happy" is trivializing maybe due to emotional attachment, but maybe its meaning has been trivialized with tradition. Some argue that eudaimon should've been used if they wanted to say "happy", which has a very different meaning from happiness (I guess something like a gifted genius and/or having made a deal with the devil or good devil spirit for his virtue or affluence), and it isn't even used in the Bible. Kindly give some translation analysis for the most suited word, don't write interpretation and doctrines and opinions when I am looking strictly for translation arguments. When using just a few Greek words, try to add transliteration.